FCCS PRETEST & POST TEST EXAM | 2025/2026
Actual Fundamentals of Critical Care Support Exams with Complete Questions | Society of
Critical Care Medicine
Overview
This 2025/2026 updated resource contains both the actual FCCS Pretest and Post Test
exams with complete questions and verified answers, following the current Society of Critical
Care Medicine (SCCM) certification standards for healthcare providers in critical care.
Key Features
✓ Actual SCCM FCCS exam format for both pretest and post-test
✓ Complete question sets with verified answer rationales
✓ Comprehensive coverage of all FCCS curriculum modules
✓ Critical care algorithms and emergency protocols
✓ Updated 2025/2026 SCCM guidelines and best practices
Core Content Areas - Pretest
• Initial Assessment & Airway Management (15 Qs)
• Cardiac Arrest & Dysrhythmias (12 Qs)
• Shock Recognition & Management (10 Qs)
• Acute Respiratory Failure (10 Qs)
• Neurological Emergencies (8 Qs)
• Trauma & Burn Management (5 Qs)
Core Content Areas - Post Test
• Advanced Airway & Mechanical Ventilation (12 Qs)
• Hemodynamic Monitoring & Support (12 Qs)
• Sepsis & Multisystem Organ Failure (10 Qs)
• Metabolic & Electrolyte Emergencies (10 Qs)
• Critical Care Pharmacology (8 Qs)
• Ethical/Legal Considerations in ICU (8 Qs)
Answer Format
Correct answers are marked in bold green and include:
• SCCM evidence-based guideline references
• Step-by-step algorithm application for critical scenarios
• Physiological rationale for intervention choices
• Common pitfalls in critical care decision-making
Updates for 2025/2026
Reflects 2025 SCCM sepsis and ARDS protocol updates
Enhanced focus on point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) in critical care
Updated ventilator management strategies for different disease states
, Latest evidence on vasopressor selection and titration
Revised post-resuscitation care guidelines
FCCS PRETEST – ACTUAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (60 Questions)
INITIAL ASSESSMENT & AIRWAY MANAGEMENT (Questions 1–15)
1. The first priority in the primary survey of a critically ill patient is:
a) Glasgow Coma Scale
b) Airway patency
c) Blood pressure
d) Oxygen saturation
b) Airway patency
Rationale: SCCM FCCS 2025 – Airway is always first (A-B-C); without patent airway,
oxygenation and ventilation cannot occur.
2. A patient presents with stridor and hoarseness after anterior neck surgery. The most
likely diagnosis is:
a) Tension pneumothorax
b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Laryngospasm
b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
Rationale: Unilateral vocal cord paralysis causes hoarseness and potential airway
compromise; may require urgent fiber-optic evaluation.
3. The Mallampati Class III airway predicts:
a) Easy intubation
b) Difficult bag-mask ventilation
c) Difficult intubation
d) No clinical relevance
c) Difficult intubation
Rationale: Only soft palate visible; associated with higher Cormack-Lehane grade.
4. Apneic oxygenation during rapid sequence intubation is achieved via:
a) Nasal cannula at 15 L/min
b) Bag-mask at 5 L/min
c) Non-rebreather at 10 L/min
d) High-flow nasal cannula at 60 L/min
a) Nasal cannula at 15 L/min
Rationale: Simple, low-cost; maintains O₂ saturation by filling pharyngeal reservoir.
5. Rocuronium dose for rapid-sequence intubation in a 70 kg adult is:
a) 0.3 mg/kg
b) 0.6 mg/kg
c) 1.2 mg/kg
d) 2.0 mg/kg
c) 1.2 mg/kg
Rationale: 1.2 mg/kg provides intubating conditions in 60 s; alternative to
succinylcholine.
6. Sellick maneuver (cricoid pressure) is contraindicated in:
a) Active vomiting
, b) Pregnancy
c) Obesity
d) Cervical spine injury
a) Active vomiting
Rationale: Risk of esophageal rupture; release pressure if active emesis.
7. Capnography waveform abruptly falls to zero during intubation; this indicates:
a) Esophageal intubation
b) Circuit disconnect
c) Cardiac arrest
d) Bronchospasm
b) Circuit disconnect
Rationale: No CO₂ detected; check circuit, connections, and ETT position.
8. Post-intubation hypotension is most commonly due to:
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Sedative-induced vasodilation and reduced preload
c) Tension pneumothorax
d) Severe acidosis
b) Sedative-induced vasodilation and reduced preload
Rationale: Prevent with reduced sedative dose, fluid bolus, or pressor.
9. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is suitable for:
a) Definitive airway in severe ARDS
b) Short-term ventilation in difficult-mask patient
c) Chronic ventilation at home
d) Aspiration protection
b) Short-term ventilation in difficult-mask patient
Rationale: Does not protect against aspiration; bridge to definitive airway.
10. Cuff pressure of endotracheal tube should be maintained at:
a) 10–15 cm H₂O
b) 20–30 cm H₂O
c) 40–50 cm H₂O
d) >60 cm H₂O
b) 20–30 cm H₂O
Rationale: Minimizes tracheal ischemia (<30) and prevents leak (>20).
11. Percutaneous tracheostomy is preferred over surgical after how many days of
intubation?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 10
d) 21
b) 7 days
Rationale: SCCM 2025: consider if >7 days expected; reduces laryngeal injury.
12. Tracheostomy tube obstruction presents with:
a) High peak pressures, low tidal volume
b) Low peak pressures, high tidal volume
c) High PEEP, low FiO₂
d) Low PEEP, high FiO₂
a) High peak pressures, low tidal volume
Rationale: Sudden increase in resistance; requires immediate suction or tube change.
Actual Fundamentals of Critical Care Support Exams with Complete Questions | Society of
Critical Care Medicine
Overview
This 2025/2026 updated resource contains both the actual FCCS Pretest and Post Test
exams with complete questions and verified answers, following the current Society of Critical
Care Medicine (SCCM) certification standards for healthcare providers in critical care.
Key Features
✓ Actual SCCM FCCS exam format for both pretest and post-test
✓ Complete question sets with verified answer rationales
✓ Comprehensive coverage of all FCCS curriculum modules
✓ Critical care algorithms and emergency protocols
✓ Updated 2025/2026 SCCM guidelines and best practices
Core Content Areas - Pretest
• Initial Assessment & Airway Management (15 Qs)
• Cardiac Arrest & Dysrhythmias (12 Qs)
• Shock Recognition & Management (10 Qs)
• Acute Respiratory Failure (10 Qs)
• Neurological Emergencies (8 Qs)
• Trauma & Burn Management (5 Qs)
Core Content Areas - Post Test
• Advanced Airway & Mechanical Ventilation (12 Qs)
• Hemodynamic Monitoring & Support (12 Qs)
• Sepsis & Multisystem Organ Failure (10 Qs)
• Metabolic & Electrolyte Emergencies (10 Qs)
• Critical Care Pharmacology (8 Qs)
• Ethical/Legal Considerations in ICU (8 Qs)
Answer Format
Correct answers are marked in bold green and include:
• SCCM evidence-based guideline references
• Step-by-step algorithm application for critical scenarios
• Physiological rationale for intervention choices
• Common pitfalls in critical care decision-making
Updates for 2025/2026
Reflects 2025 SCCM sepsis and ARDS protocol updates
Enhanced focus on point-of-care ultrasound (POCUS) in critical care
Updated ventilator management strategies for different disease states
, Latest evidence on vasopressor selection and titration
Revised post-resuscitation care guidelines
FCCS PRETEST – ACTUAL QUESTIONS & ANSWERS (60 Questions)
INITIAL ASSESSMENT & AIRWAY MANAGEMENT (Questions 1–15)
1. The first priority in the primary survey of a critically ill patient is:
a) Glasgow Coma Scale
b) Airway patency
c) Blood pressure
d) Oxygen saturation
b) Airway patency
Rationale: SCCM FCCS 2025 – Airway is always first (A-B-C); without patent airway,
oxygenation and ventilation cannot occur.
2. A patient presents with stridor and hoarseness after anterior neck surgery. The most
likely diagnosis is:
a) Tension pneumothorax
b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
c) Pulmonary embolism
d) Laryngospasm
b) Recurrent laryngeal nerve injury
Rationale: Unilateral vocal cord paralysis causes hoarseness and potential airway
compromise; may require urgent fiber-optic evaluation.
3. The Mallampati Class III airway predicts:
a) Easy intubation
b) Difficult bag-mask ventilation
c) Difficult intubation
d) No clinical relevance
c) Difficult intubation
Rationale: Only soft palate visible; associated with higher Cormack-Lehane grade.
4. Apneic oxygenation during rapid sequence intubation is achieved via:
a) Nasal cannula at 15 L/min
b) Bag-mask at 5 L/min
c) Non-rebreather at 10 L/min
d) High-flow nasal cannula at 60 L/min
a) Nasal cannula at 15 L/min
Rationale: Simple, low-cost; maintains O₂ saturation by filling pharyngeal reservoir.
5. Rocuronium dose for rapid-sequence intubation in a 70 kg adult is:
a) 0.3 mg/kg
b) 0.6 mg/kg
c) 1.2 mg/kg
d) 2.0 mg/kg
c) 1.2 mg/kg
Rationale: 1.2 mg/kg provides intubating conditions in 60 s; alternative to
succinylcholine.
6. Sellick maneuver (cricoid pressure) is contraindicated in:
a) Active vomiting
, b) Pregnancy
c) Obesity
d) Cervical spine injury
a) Active vomiting
Rationale: Risk of esophageal rupture; release pressure if active emesis.
7. Capnography waveform abruptly falls to zero during intubation; this indicates:
a) Esophageal intubation
b) Circuit disconnect
c) Cardiac arrest
d) Bronchospasm
b) Circuit disconnect
Rationale: No CO₂ detected; check circuit, connections, and ETT position.
8. Post-intubation hypotension is most commonly due to:
a) Anaphylaxis
b) Sedative-induced vasodilation and reduced preload
c) Tension pneumothorax
d) Severe acidosis
b) Sedative-induced vasodilation and reduced preload
Rationale: Prevent with reduced sedative dose, fluid bolus, or pressor.
9. Laryngeal mask airway (LMA) is suitable for:
a) Definitive airway in severe ARDS
b) Short-term ventilation in difficult-mask patient
c) Chronic ventilation at home
d) Aspiration protection
b) Short-term ventilation in difficult-mask patient
Rationale: Does not protect against aspiration; bridge to definitive airway.
10. Cuff pressure of endotracheal tube should be maintained at:
a) 10–15 cm H₂O
b) 20–30 cm H₂O
c) 40–50 cm H₂O
d) >60 cm H₂O
b) 20–30 cm H₂O
Rationale: Minimizes tracheal ischemia (<30) and prevents leak (>20).
11. Percutaneous tracheostomy is preferred over surgical after how many days of
intubation?
a) 3
b) 7
c) 10
d) 21
b) 7 days
Rationale: SCCM 2025: consider if >7 days expected; reduces laryngeal injury.
12. Tracheostomy tube obstruction presents with:
a) High peak pressures, low tidal volume
b) Low peak pressures, high tidal volume
c) High PEEP, low FiO₂
d) Low PEEP, high FiO₂
a) High peak pressures, low tidal volume
Rationale: Sudden increase in resistance; requires immediate suction or tube change.
