NSG 3100 Exam 3 Test
1) The nurse would call the primary care provider immediately for which laboratory result?
1. Hgb = 16 g/dL for a male client
2. Hct = 22% for a female client
3. WBC = 9 × 103/mL3
4. Platelets = 300 × 103/mL3 - Answers-Answer: 2. Rationale: Option 2 is very low and can lead to death.
The client's red blood cells participate in oxygenation. Options 1, 3, and 4 are within normal range and
should not be reported to the primary care provider. Cognitive Level: Applying. Client Need:
Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process: Implementation. Learning Outcome: 34-3.
2) A 78-year-old male client needs to complete a 24-hour urine specimen. In planning his care, the nurse
realizes that which measure is most important?
1. Instruct the client to empty his bladder and save this voiding to start the collection.
2. Instruct the client to use sterile individual containers to collect the urine.
3. Post a sign stating "Save All Urine" in the bathroom.
4. Keep the urine specimen in the refrigerator. - Answers-Answer: 3. Rationale: Option 3 is the most
important nursing measure. This will inform the staff that the client is on a 24-hour urine collection.
Option 1 is not appropriate since the first voided specimen is to be discarded. Option 2 is not an
appropriate nursing measure since the specimen container is clean not sterile, and one container is
needed—not individual containers. Option 4 is inappropriate because some 24-hour urine collections do
not require refrigeration. Cognitive Level: Understanding. Client Need: Physiological Integrity.Nursing
Process: Implementation. Learning Outcome: 34-6.
3) The client has a urinary health problem. Which procedure is performed using indirect visualization?
1. Intravenous pyelography (IVP)
,2. Kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB)
3. Retrograde pyelography
4. Cystoscopy - Answers-Answer: 2. Rationale: A KUB is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
This does not require direct visualization. Option 1 is an IVP, an intravenous pyelogram, which requires
the injection of a contrast media. Option 3 is a retrograde pyelography, which requires the injection of a
contrast media. Option 4 is a cystoscopy, which uses a lighted instrument (cystoscope) inserted through
the urethra, resulting in direct visualization. Cognitive Level: Remembering. Client Need: Physiological
Integrity. Nursing Process: Assessment. Learning Outcome: 34-8
4) Which noninvasive procedure provides information about the physiology or function of an organ?
1. Angiography
2. Computerized tomography (CT)
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
4. Positron emission tomography (PET) - Answers-Answer: 4. Rationale: This type of nuclear scan
demonstrates the ability of tissues to absorb the chemical to indicate the physiology and function of an
organ. Option 1 is an invasive procedure that focuses on blood flow through an organ. Options 2 and 3
provide information about density of tissue to help distinguish between normal and abnormal tissue of
an organ. Cognitive Level: Remembering. Client Need: Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process:
Assessment. Learning Outcome: 34-9
5) When assisting with a bone marrow biopsy, the nurse should take which action?
1. Assist the client to a right side-lying position after the
procedure.
2. Observe for signs of dyspnea, pallor, and coughing.
3. Assess for bleeding and hematoma formation for several days after the procedure.
4. Stand in front of the client and support the back of the neck and knees. - Answers-Answer: 3.
Rationale: Bone marrow aspiration includes deep penetration into soft tissue and large bones such as
the sternum and iliac crest. This penetration can result in bleeding. The client should be observed for
bleeding in the days following the procedure. Option 1 is a nursing action during a liver biopsy. Option 2
is a nursing action for a thoracentesis, and Option 4 is a nursing action for a lumbar puncture. Cognitive
Level: Applying. Client Need: Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process: Implementation. Learning
Outcome: 34-10
, 6) During an assessment, the nurse learns that the client has a history of liver disease. Which diagnostic
tests might be indicated for this client? Select all that apply.
1. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
2. Myoglobin
3. Cholesterol
4. Ammonia
5. Brain natriuretic peptide or B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) - Answers-Answer: 1 and 4. Rationale:
ALT is an enzyme that contributes to protein and carbohydrate metabolism. An increase in the enzyme
indicates damage to the liver. The liver contributes to the metabolism of protein, which results in the
production of ammonia. If the liver is damaged, the ammonia level is increased. Options 2, 3, and 5
(myoglobin, cholesterol, and BNP) are relevant for heart disease. Cognitive Level: Applying. Client Need:
Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process: Assessment. Learning Outcome: 34-2.
7) The nurse practitioner requests a laboratory blood test to determine how well a client has controlled
her diabetes during the past 3 months. Which blood test will provide this information?
1. Fasting blood glucose
2. Capillary blood specimen
3. Glycosylated hemoglobin
4. GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) - Answers-Answer: 3. Rationale: A glycosylated hemoglobin will
indicate the glucose levels for a period of time, which is indicated by the nurse practitioner. Options 1
and 2 will provide information about the current blood glucose, not the past history. Option 4 is used to
assess for liver disease. Cognitive Level: Remembering. Client Need: Physiological
Integrity. Nursing Process: Planning. Learning Outcome: 34-2
8) The client is supposed to have a fecal occult blood test done on a stool sample. The nurse is going to
use the Hemoccult test. Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using the correct procedure?
Select all that apply.
1. Mixes the reagent with the stool sample before applying to the card.
2. Collects a sample from two different areas of the stool specimen.
1) The nurse would call the primary care provider immediately for which laboratory result?
1. Hgb = 16 g/dL for a male client
2. Hct = 22% for a female client
3. WBC = 9 × 103/mL3
4. Platelets = 300 × 103/mL3 - Answers-Answer: 2. Rationale: Option 2 is very low and can lead to death.
The client's red blood cells participate in oxygenation. Options 1, 3, and 4 are within normal range and
should not be reported to the primary care provider. Cognitive Level: Applying. Client Need:
Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process: Implementation. Learning Outcome: 34-3.
2) A 78-year-old male client needs to complete a 24-hour urine specimen. In planning his care, the nurse
realizes that which measure is most important?
1. Instruct the client to empty his bladder and save this voiding to start the collection.
2. Instruct the client to use sterile individual containers to collect the urine.
3. Post a sign stating "Save All Urine" in the bathroom.
4. Keep the urine specimen in the refrigerator. - Answers-Answer: 3. Rationale: Option 3 is the most
important nursing measure. This will inform the staff that the client is on a 24-hour urine collection.
Option 1 is not appropriate since the first voided specimen is to be discarded. Option 2 is not an
appropriate nursing measure since the specimen container is clean not sterile, and one container is
needed—not individual containers. Option 4 is inappropriate because some 24-hour urine collections do
not require refrigeration. Cognitive Level: Understanding. Client Need: Physiological Integrity.Nursing
Process: Implementation. Learning Outcome: 34-6.
3) The client has a urinary health problem. Which procedure is performed using indirect visualization?
1. Intravenous pyelography (IVP)
,2. Kidneys, ureter, bladder (KUB)
3. Retrograde pyelography
4. Cystoscopy - Answers-Answer: 2. Rationale: A KUB is an x-ray of the kidneys, ureters, and bladder.
This does not require direct visualization. Option 1 is an IVP, an intravenous pyelogram, which requires
the injection of a contrast media. Option 3 is a retrograde pyelography, which requires the injection of a
contrast media. Option 4 is a cystoscopy, which uses a lighted instrument (cystoscope) inserted through
the urethra, resulting in direct visualization. Cognitive Level: Remembering. Client Need: Physiological
Integrity. Nursing Process: Assessment. Learning Outcome: 34-8
4) Which noninvasive procedure provides information about the physiology or function of an organ?
1. Angiography
2. Computerized tomography (CT)
3. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
4. Positron emission tomography (PET) - Answers-Answer: 4. Rationale: This type of nuclear scan
demonstrates the ability of tissues to absorb the chemical to indicate the physiology and function of an
organ. Option 1 is an invasive procedure that focuses on blood flow through an organ. Options 2 and 3
provide information about density of tissue to help distinguish between normal and abnormal tissue of
an organ. Cognitive Level: Remembering. Client Need: Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process:
Assessment. Learning Outcome: 34-9
5) When assisting with a bone marrow biopsy, the nurse should take which action?
1. Assist the client to a right side-lying position after the
procedure.
2. Observe for signs of dyspnea, pallor, and coughing.
3. Assess for bleeding and hematoma formation for several days after the procedure.
4. Stand in front of the client and support the back of the neck and knees. - Answers-Answer: 3.
Rationale: Bone marrow aspiration includes deep penetration into soft tissue and large bones such as
the sternum and iliac crest. This penetration can result in bleeding. The client should be observed for
bleeding in the days following the procedure. Option 1 is a nursing action during a liver biopsy. Option 2
is a nursing action for a thoracentesis, and Option 4 is a nursing action for a lumbar puncture. Cognitive
Level: Applying. Client Need: Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process: Implementation. Learning
Outcome: 34-10
, 6) During an assessment, the nurse learns that the client has a history of liver disease. Which diagnostic
tests might be indicated for this client? Select all that apply.
1. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
2. Myoglobin
3. Cholesterol
4. Ammonia
5. Brain natriuretic peptide or B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) - Answers-Answer: 1 and 4. Rationale:
ALT is an enzyme that contributes to protein and carbohydrate metabolism. An increase in the enzyme
indicates damage to the liver. The liver contributes to the metabolism of protein, which results in the
production of ammonia. If the liver is damaged, the ammonia level is increased. Options 2, 3, and 5
(myoglobin, cholesterol, and BNP) are relevant for heart disease. Cognitive Level: Applying. Client Need:
Physiological Integrity. Nursing Process: Assessment. Learning Outcome: 34-2.
7) The nurse practitioner requests a laboratory blood test to determine how well a client has controlled
her diabetes during the past 3 months. Which blood test will provide this information?
1. Fasting blood glucose
2. Capillary blood specimen
3. Glycosylated hemoglobin
4. GGT (gamma-glutamyl transferase) - Answers-Answer: 3. Rationale: A glycosylated hemoglobin will
indicate the glucose levels for a period of time, which is indicated by the nurse practitioner. Options 1
and 2 will provide information about the current blood glucose, not the past history. Option 4 is used to
assess for liver disease. Cognitive Level: Remembering. Client Need: Physiological
Integrity. Nursing Process: Planning. Learning Outcome: 34-2
8) The client is supposed to have a fecal occult blood test done on a stool sample. The nurse is going to
use the Hemoccult test. Which of the following indicates that the nurse is using the correct procedure?
Select all that apply.
1. Mixes the reagent with the stool sample before applying to the card.
2. Collects a sample from two different areas of the stool specimen.
