TCAR FINAL EXAM-TRAUMA CARE QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |
ALREADY GRADED A+ | UPDATED 2025
Question 1
According to mass casualty triage principles, a patient with an open airway, a respiratory rate of
24/min, a capillary refill of 1.5 seconds, and an inability to follow simple commands should be
tagged as:
A) Green (Minimal)
B) Yellow (Delayed)
C) Red (Immediate)
D) Black (Expectant)
E) Blue (Contaminated)
Correct Answer: C) Red (Immediate)
Rationale: In the START triage system, a patient's mental status is assessed after their
respirations and perfusion are found to be adequate. A patient who is unable to follow
simple commands is considered to have an altered mental status and is triaged as
Immediate (Red), indicating a need for urgent medical attention.
Question 2
A patient arrives in the trauma bay with multiple injuries. Which of the following conditions
represents a life-threatening injury that must be managed during the primary survey?
A) A closed femur fracture
B) A tension pneumothorax
C) A large scalp laceration with controlled bleeding
D) An open fracture of the tibia
E) A third-degree burn on the arm
Correct Answer: B) A tension pneumothorax
Rationale: The primary survey (ABCDE) focuses on identifying and managing immediate
life threats. A tension pneumothorax compromises breathing and circulation and can be
fatal if not treated immediately. Fractures (A, D), controlled lacerations (C), and isolated
extremity burns (E) are addressed in the secondary survey.
Question 3
A patient is brought to the emergency department with a suspected spinal cord injury. Which is
the priority nursing intervention?
A) Administering pain medication
B) Maintaining complete spinal immobilization
C) Checking for sensation in the lower extremities
D) Obtaining a detailed medical history
E) Placing a Foley catheter
,[Type here]
Correct Answer: B) Maintaining complete spinal immobilization
Rationale: The highest priority in a suspected spinal cord injury is to prevent further
damage. Maintaining spinal immobilization (using a cervical collar, backboard, and head
blocks) is crucial to protect the spinal cord from movement that could worsen the injury.
All other assessments and interventions are secondary to this protective measure.
Question 4
A disaster is declared in which local and regional resources are overwhelmed, requiring
statewide and federal assistance. This is classified as which level of response?
A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3
E) Level 4
Correct Answer: D) Level 3
Rationale: A Level 3 disaster is a large-scale event where the scope and severity exceed the
capabilities of local and regional responders. This necessitates the involvement of state and
federal agencies, such as FEMA, to manage the disaster's effects.
Question 5
During a mass casualty incident, you encounter a victim who is not breathing. After opening the
airway, the patient remains apneic. What is the correct triage classification?
A) Red (Immediate)
B) Yellow (Delayed)
C) Green (Minimal)
D) Black (Expectant)
E) Re-evaluate in 5 minutes
Correct Answer: D) Black (Expectant)
Rationale: According to the START triage algorithm, if a patient is not breathing and does
not begin to breathe after a single attempt to open the airway, they are classified as
Expectant (Black). In a mass casualty scenario, resources are directed towards saving the
most viable patients, and this patient is considered unlikely to survive.
Question 6
A patient with a significant but non-life-threatening abdominal injury who can safely wait for
surgical intervention would be triaged into which category?
A) Red (Immediate)
B) Yellow (Delayed)
C) Green (Minimal)
D) Black (Expectant)
E) White (No injury)
,[Type here]
Correct Answer: B) Yellow (Delayed)
Rationale: The Yellow (Delayed) category is for patients with significant injuries that
require medical care but are not immediately life-threatening. These patients are stable
enough to wait for a period without a rapid decline in their condition, allowing more
critical (Red) patients to be treated first.
Question 7
What is the primary goal of triage in a mass casualty incident?
A) To treat the most severely injured patients first, regardless of their prognosis.
B) To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
C) To provide comfort care to all victims.
D) To transport all patients to the nearest hospital as quickly as possible.
E) To identify and tag every victim on the scene.
Correct Answer: B) To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
Rationale: The fundamental principle of disaster triage is to allocate limited resources in a
way that saves the maximum number of lives. This means prioritizing patients who are
critically injured but have a high chance of survival with immediate intervention, over
those with minor injuries or those who are unlikely to survive even with treatment.
Question 8
A major bruising of the soft tissue as a result of blunt trauma, without a break in the skin, is best
described as a:
A) Laceration
B) Abrasion
C) Avulsion
D) Contusion
E) Puncture
Correct Answer: D) Contusion
Rationale: A contusion, or bruise, is an injury to the underlying tissues and blood vessels
caused by blunt force trauma. Blood leaks from damaged capillaries into the surrounding
tissue, causing the characteristic discoloration. There is no break in the overlying skin.
Question 9
In the secondary survey of a poisoning victim, what is the most critical piece of historical
information to obtain?
A) The patient's primary care physician.
B) The patient's insurance information.
C) The time and duration of exposure to the toxin.
D) The patient's last meal.
E) The patient's occupation.
, [Type here]
Correct Answer: C) The time and duration of exposure to the toxin.
Rationale: For a poisoning or overdose, understanding the timeline is crucial for treatment.
Knowing when the exposure occurred and for how long helps predict the absorption of the
toxin, the peak effect, and the appropriate window for interventions like gastric
decontamination or administration of an antidote.
Question 10
A patient is triaged as Green (Minimal). What is the most appropriate action for this patient?
A) Rush them immediately to the operating room.
B) Place them in an ambulance for transport to the closest facility.
C) Move them to a designated safe area away from the main triage zone.
D) Begin advanced life support measures.
E) Tag them as Black (Expectant) as their injuries are not severe.
Correct Answer: C) Move them to a designated safe area away from the main triage zone.
Rationale: Patients in the Green category are considered the "walking wounded." They
have minor injuries and can be directed to a separate, safe area. This clears the main triage
and treatment areas for more seriously injured patients and helps to organize the scene.
Question 11
Which patient should be triaged as Red (Immediate)?
A) An adult with a respiratory rate of 18, capillary refill of 1 second, and is able to walk.
B) An adult with a respiratory rate of 26, capillary refill of 1.5 seconds, and is able to follow
commands.
C) An adult who is apneic even after opening the airway.
D) An adult with a respiratory rate of 34, and is breathing.
E) An adult with a simple fracture of the radius.
Correct Answer: D) An adult with a respiratory rate of 34, and is breathing.
Rationale: In the START triage system, any adult patient with a respiratory rate greater
than 30 breaths per minute is immediately classified as Red (Immediate). This indicates
significant respiratory distress that requires urgent attention.
Question 12
Which of the following is the first priority in managing a multi-trauma patient?
A) Control of external hemorrhage
B) Airway management with cervical spine protection
C) Obtaining intravenous access
D) Neurological assessment
E) Splinting of fractures
Correct Answer: B) Airway management with cervical spine protection
Rationale: The primary survey in trauma follows the ABCDE mnemonic. Airway is the first
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |
ALREADY GRADED A+ | UPDATED 2025
Question 1
According to mass casualty triage principles, a patient with an open airway, a respiratory rate of
24/min, a capillary refill of 1.5 seconds, and an inability to follow simple commands should be
tagged as:
A) Green (Minimal)
B) Yellow (Delayed)
C) Red (Immediate)
D) Black (Expectant)
E) Blue (Contaminated)
Correct Answer: C) Red (Immediate)
Rationale: In the START triage system, a patient's mental status is assessed after their
respirations and perfusion are found to be adequate. A patient who is unable to follow
simple commands is considered to have an altered mental status and is triaged as
Immediate (Red), indicating a need for urgent medical attention.
Question 2
A patient arrives in the trauma bay with multiple injuries. Which of the following conditions
represents a life-threatening injury that must be managed during the primary survey?
A) A closed femur fracture
B) A tension pneumothorax
C) A large scalp laceration with controlled bleeding
D) An open fracture of the tibia
E) A third-degree burn on the arm
Correct Answer: B) A tension pneumothorax
Rationale: The primary survey (ABCDE) focuses on identifying and managing immediate
life threats. A tension pneumothorax compromises breathing and circulation and can be
fatal if not treated immediately. Fractures (A, D), controlled lacerations (C), and isolated
extremity burns (E) are addressed in the secondary survey.
Question 3
A patient is brought to the emergency department with a suspected spinal cord injury. Which is
the priority nursing intervention?
A) Administering pain medication
B) Maintaining complete spinal immobilization
C) Checking for sensation in the lower extremities
D) Obtaining a detailed medical history
E) Placing a Foley catheter
,[Type here]
Correct Answer: B) Maintaining complete spinal immobilization
Rationale: The highest priority in a suspected spinal cord injury is to prevent further
damage. Maintaining spinal immobilization (using a cervical collar, backboard, and head
blocks) is crucial to protect the spinal cord from movement that could worsen the injury.
All other assessments and interventions are secondary to this protective measure.
Question 4
A disaster is declared in which local and regional resources are overwhelmed, requiring
statewide and federal assistance. This is classified as which level of response?
A) Level 0
B) Level 1
C) Level 2
D) Level 3
E) Level 4
Correct Answer: D) Level 3
Rationale: A Level 3 disaster is a large-scale event where the scope and severity exceed the
capabilities of local and regional responders. This necessitates the involvement of state and
federal agencies, such as FEMA, to manage the disaster's effects.
Question 5
During a mass casualty incident, you encounter a victim who is not breathing. After opening the
airway, the patient remains apneic. What is the correct triage classification?
A) Red (Immediate)
B) Yellow (Delayed)
C) Green (Minimal)
D) Black (Expectant)
E) Re-evaluate in 5 minutes
Correct Answer: D) Black (Expectant)
Rationale: According to the START triage algorithm, if a patient is not breathing and does
not begin to breathe after a single attempt to open the airway, they are classified as
Expectant (Black). In a mass casualty scenario, resources are directed towards saving the
most viable patients, and this patient is considered unlikely to survive.
Question 6
A patient with a significant but non-life-threatening abdominal injury who can safely wait for
surgical intervention would be triaged into which category?
A) Red (Immediate)
B) Yellow (Delayed)
C) Green (Minimal)
D) Black (Expectant)
E) White (No injury)
,[Type here]
Correct Answer: B) Yellow (Delayed)
Rationale: The Yellow (Delayed) category is for patients with significant injuries that
require medical care but are not immediately life-threatening. These patients are stable
enough to wait for a period without a rapid decline in their condition, allowing more
critical (Red) patients to be treated first.
Question 7
What is the primary goal of triage in a mass casualty incident?
A) To treat the most severely injured patients first, regardless of their prognosis.
B) To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
C) To provide comfort care to all victims.
D) To transport all patients to the nearest hospital as quickly as possible.
E) To identify and tag every victim on the scene.
Correct Answer: B) To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
Rationale: The fundamental principle of disaster triage is to allocate limited resources in a
way that saves the maximum number of lives. This means prioritizing patients who are
critically injured but have a high chance of survival with immediate intervention, over
those with minor injuries or those who are unlikely to survive even with treatment.
Question 8
A major bruising of the soft tissue as a result of blunt trauma, without a break in the skin, is best
described as a:
A) Laceration
B) Abrasion
C) Avulsion
D) Contusion
E) Puncture
Correct Answer: D) Contusion
Rationale: A contusion, or bruise, is an injury to the underlying tissues and blood vessels
caused by blunt force trauma. Blood leaks from damaged capillaries into the surrounding
tissue, causing the characteristic discoloration. There is no break in the overlying skin.
Question 9
In the secondary survey of a poisoning victim, what is the most critical piece of historical
information to obtain?
A) The patient's primary care physician.
B) The patient's insurance information.
C) The time and duration of exposure to the toxin.
D) The patient's last meal.
E) The patient's occupation.
, [Type here]
Correct Answer: C) The time and duration of exposure to the toxin.
Rationale: For a poisoning or overdose, understanding the timeline is crucial for treatment.
Knowing when the exposure occurred and for how long helps predict the absorption of the
toxin, the peak effect, and the appropriate window for interventions like gastric
decontamination or administration of an antidote.
Question 10
A patient is triaged as Green (Minimal). What is the most appropriate action for this patient?
A) Rush them immediately to the operating room.
B) Place them in an ambulance for transport to the closest facility.
C) Move them to a designated safe area away from the main triage zone.
D) Begin advanced life support measures.
E) Tag them as Black (Expectant) as their injuries are not severe.
Correct Answer: C) Move them to a designated safe area away from the main triage zone.
Rationale: Patients in the Green category are considered the "walking wounded." They
have minor injuries and can be directed to a separate, safe area. This clears the main triage
and treatment areas for more seriously injured patients and helps to organize the scene.
Question 11
Which patient should be triaged as Red (Immediate)?
A) An adult with a respiratory rate of 18, capillary refill of 1 second, and is able to walk.
B) An adult with a respiratory rate of 26, capillary refill of 1.5 seconds, and is able to follow
commands.
C) An adult who is apneic even after opening the airway.
D) An adult with a respiratory rate of 34, and is breathing.
E) An adult with a simple fracture of the radius.
Correct Answer: D) An adult with a respiratory rate of 34, and is breathing.
Rationale: In the START triage system, any adult patient with a respiratory rate greater
than 30 breaths per minute is immediately classified as Red (Immediate). This indicates
significant respiratory distress that requires urgent attention.
Question 12
Which of the following is the first priority in managing a multi-trauma patient?
A) Control of external hemorrhage
B) Airway management with cervical spine protection
C) Obtaining intravenous access
D) Neurological assessment
E) Splinting of fractures
Correct Answer: B) Airway management with cervical spine protection
Rationale: The primary survey in trauma follows the ABCDE mnemonic. Airway is the first
