NR565 Advanced Pharmacology 3 Versions (NEW UPDATED VERSION) LATEST
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+ [2026]
NR565 Advanced Pharmacology
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril. What is the main adverse effect to monitor?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypernatremia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels; hyperkalemia is a serious risk.
2. Which drug is classified as a beta-1 selective blocker?
A) Propranolol
B) Metoprolol
C) Carvedilol
D) Nadolol
Rationale: Metoprolol primarily blocks beta-1 receptors, minimizing bronchospasm risk.
3. A patient taking warfarin is started on amiodarone. What should be monitored closely?
A) INR
B) Hemoglobin
C) WBC
D) Platelets
Rationale: Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing bleeding risk; monitor INR.
4. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal bone malformations?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Doxycycline
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
,C) Cephalexin
D) Azithromycin
Rationale: Tetracyclines can affect fetal bone and teeth development.
5. Which class of drugs is first-line for type 2 diabetes?
A) Sulfonylureas
B) Metformin
C) Thiazolidinediones
D) DPP-4 inhibitors
Rationale: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and is preferred unless contraindicated.
6. A patient reports dry cough after starting lisinopril. What is the likely cause?
A) Hypotension
B) Bradykinin accumulation
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, which can cause persistent cough.
7. Which medication is a loop diuretic?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Furosemide
C) Spironolactone
D) Mannitol
Rationale: Furosemide inhibits the Na-K-2Cl symporter in the loop of Henle.
8. A patient with asthma needs a beta-blocker. Which is safest?
A) Propranolol
B) Atenolol
C) Nadolol
D) Timolol
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
,Rationale: Cardioselective beta-1 blockers (atenolol) reduce bronchospasm risk.
9. Which anticoagulant directly inhibits thrombin?
A) Warfarin
B) Heparin
C) Dabigatran
D) Apixaban
Rationale: Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor.
10. Which drug is first-line for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A) Metoprolol
B) Lisinopril
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Amlodipine
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce morbidity and mortality in HFrEF.
11. A patient on digoxin develops nausea, visual halos, and arrhythmias. Likely cause?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Beta-blocker overdose
Rationale: These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity; check serum levels.
12. Which drug class is used for acute gout attacks?
A) Allopurinol
B) Colchicine
C) Febuxostat
D) Probenecid
Rationale: Colchicine inhibits microtubule formation, reducing inflammation in acute attacks.
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
, 13. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed morphine. Which is a serious side effect?
A) Hypertension
B) Respiratory depression
C) Diarrhea
D) Tremors
Rationale: Opioids can depress the respiratory center; monitor closely.
14. Which antibiotic class is associated with QT prolongation?
A) Macrolides
B) Penicillins
C) Cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides
Rationale: Macrolides (e.g., azithromycin) can prolong the QT interval, increasing arrhythmia
risk.
15. A patient on statins reports muscle pain. What lab should be checked?
A) ALT
B) AST
C) CK
D) LDH
Rationale: Statins can cause myopathy or rhabdomyolysis; monitor creatine kinase.
16. Which class of drugs is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine
B) Methimazole
C) Liothyronine
D) Propylthiouracil
Rationale: Methimazole inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
ACTUAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS) | GUARANTEED PASS A+ [2026]
NR565 Advanced Pharmacology
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril. What is the main adverse effect to monitor?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Bradycardia
D) Hypernatremia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels; hyperkalemia is a serious risk.
2. Which drug is classified as a beta-1 selective blocker?
A) Propranolol
B) Metoprolol
C) Carvedilol
D) Nadolol
Rationale: Metoprolol primarily blocks beta-1 receptors, minimizing bronchospasm risk.
3. A patient taking warfarin is started on amiodarone. What should be monitored closely?
A) INR
B) Hemoglobin
C) WBC
D) Platelets
Rationale: Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing bleeding risk; monitor INR.
4. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to risk of fetal bone malformations?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Doxycycline
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
,C) Cephalexin
D) Azithromycin
Rationale: Tetracyclines can affect fetal bone and teeth development.
5. Which class of drugs is first-line for type 2 diabetes?
A) Sulfonylureas
B) Metformin
C) Thiazolidinediones
D) DPP-4 inhibitors
Rationale: Metformin improves insulin sensitivity and is preferred unless contraindicated.
6. A patient reports dry cough after starting lisinopril. What is the likely cause?
A) Hypotension
B) Bradykinin accumulation
C) Hyperkalemia
D) Angioedema
Rationale: ACE inhibitors increase bradykinin, which can cause persistent cough.
7. Which medication is a loop diuretic?
A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Furosemide
C) Spironolactone
D) Mannitol
Rationale: Furosemide inhibits the Na-K-2Cl symporter in the loop of Henle.
8. A patient with asthma needs a beta-blocker. Which is safest?
A) Propranolol
B) Atenolol
C) Nadolol
D) Timolol
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
,Rationale: Cardioselective beta-1 blockers (atenolol) reduce bronchospasm risk.
9. Which anticoagulant directly inhibits thrombin?
A) Warfarin
B) Heparin
C) Dabigatran
D) Apixaban
Rationale: Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor.
10. Which drug is first-line for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?
A) Metoprolol
B) Lisinopril
C) Hydrochlorothiazide
D) Amlodipine
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce morbidity and mortality in HFrEF.
11. A patient on digoxin develops nausea, visual halos, and arrhythmias. Likely cause?
A) Hypokalemia
B) Digoxin toxicity
C) Hypomagnesemia
D) Beta-blocker overdose
Rationale: These are classic signs of digoxin toxicity; check serum levels.
12. Which drug class is used for acute gout attacks?
A) Allopurinol
B) Colchicine
C) Febuxostat
D) Probenecid
Rationale: Colchicine inhibits microtubule formation, reducing inflammation in acute attacks.
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
, 13. A patient with chronic pain is prescribed morphine. Which is a serious side effect?
A) Hypertension
B) Respiratory depression
C) Diarrhea
D) Tremors
Rationale: Opioids can depress the respiratory center; monitor closely.
14. Which antibiotic class is associated with QT prolongation?
A) Macrolides
B) Penicillins
C) Cephalosporins
D) Aminoglycosides
Rationale: Macrolides (e.g., azithromycin) can prolong the QT interval, increasing arrhythmia
risk.
15. A patient on statins reports muscle pain. What lab should be checked?
A) ALT
B) AST
C) CK
D) LDH
Rationale: Statins can cause myopathy or rhabdomyolysis; monitor creatine kinase.
16. Which class of drugs is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
A) Levothyroxine
B) Methimazole
C) Liothyronine
D) Propylthiouracil
Rationale: Methimazole inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis.
2026 Graded A+ EXAM
