ATI RN Medical-Surgical Practice Exam — Most Recent exam
COMPLETE (2026) EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified
Answers) (Latest Update 2026) Graded A+
1. The nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure. Which of the following is
the priority assessment?
A. Skin turgor
B. Urine output
C. Lung sounds
D. Capillary refill
Rationale: Pulmonary congestion can indicate worsening heart failure; assessing lung sounds is
the priority to detect early pulmonary edema.
2. A patient with COPD reports increased dyspnea. Which oxygen delivery
method is most appropriate to start?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 1–2 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 50%
D. High-flow nasal cannula at 60 L/min
Rationale: Patients with COPD are at risk for CO₂ retention; low-flow oxygen (1–2 L/min) is
safest initially.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease is on a low-potassium diet. Which food
should be avoided?
A. Apples
1
B. Carrots
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EXAMPREPMASTER
, C. Bananas
D. Rice
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which can be dangerous in CKD due to risk of
hyperkalemia.
4. Which lab value indicates that a patient is at risk for bleeding?
A. WBC 12,000/mm³
B. Platelets 50,000/mm³
C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. Sodium 138 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal platelet count is 150,000–450,000/mm³. Low platelets increase bleeding risk.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient post-thyroidectomy. Which assessment is
priority?
A. Temperature
B. Heart rate
C. Airway patency
D. Pain level
Rationale: Airway obstruction from swelling or hematoma is life-threatening and must be
assessed first.
6. A patient with a GI bleed has coffee-ground emesis. What is the nurse’s first
action?
A. Prepare for colonoscopy
B. Assess vital signs and hemodynamic status
C. Administer antacids
D. Encourage oral fluids
Rationale: Hemodynamic stability takes priority to prevent shock.
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7. Which of the following is a sign of hypocalcemia?
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, A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Positive Chvostek sign
D. Bounding pulses
Rationale: Hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability; a positive Chvostek sign is
indicative.
8. A patient with DKA has K+ 3.2 mEq/L. Which is the priority intervention?
A. Start insulin infusion
B. Administer potassium replacement
C. Administer IV glucose
D. Encourage oral fluids
Rationale: Insulin shifts potassium into cells and can worsen hypokalemia, which can be fatal.
9. Which intervention helps prevent pressure ulcers in immobile patients?
A. Encourage high-protein diet
B. Reposition every 2 hours
C. Administer vitamin D
D. Restrict fluid intake
Rationale: Frequent repositioning reduces prolonged pressure on bony prominences, preventing
skin breakdown.
10. A patient is receiving heparin therapy. Which lab value must the nurse
monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. PT
Rationale: aPTT measures heparin efficacy and safety; therapeutic range is typically 60–80
seconds.
3
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EXAMPREPMASTER
COMPLETE (2026) EXAM Questions and Answers (Verified
Answers) (Latest Update 2026) Graded A+
1. The nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure. Which of the following is
the priority assessment?
A. Skin turgor
B. Urine output
C. Lung sounds
D. Capillary refill
Rationale: Pulmonary congestion can indicate worsening heart failure; assessing lung sounds is
the priority to detect early pulmonary edema.
2. A patient with COPD reports increased dyspnea. Which oxygen delivery
method is most appropriate to start?
A. Non-rebreather mask at 15 L/min
B. Nasal cannula at 1–2 L/min
C. Venturi mask at 50%
D. High-flow nasal cannula at 60 L/min
Rationale: Patients with COPD are at risk for CO₂ retention; low-flow oxygen (1–2 L/min) is
safest initially.
3. A patient with chronic kidney disease is on a low-potassium diet. Which food
should be avoided?
A. Apples
1
B. Carrots
Page
EXAMPREPMASTER
, C. Bananas
D. Rice
Rationale: Bananas are high in potassium, which can be dangerous in CKD due to risk of
hyperkalemia.
4. Which lab value indicates that a patient is at risk for bleeding?
A. WBC 12,000/mm³
B. Platelets 50,000/mm³
C. Hemoglobin 13 g/dL
D. Sodium 138 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal platelet count is 150,000–450,000/mm³. Low platelets increase bleeding risk.
5. The nurse is caring for a patient post-thyroidectomy. Which assessment is
priority?
A. Temperature
B. Heart rate
C. Airway patency
D. Pain level
Rationale: Airway obstruction from swelling or hematoma is life-threatening and must be
assessed first.
6. A patient with a GI bleed has coffee-ground emesis. What is the nurse’s first
action?
A. Prepare for colonoscopy
B. Assess vital signs and hemodynamic status
C. Administer antacids
D. Encourage oral fluids
Rationale: Hemodynamic stability takes priority to prevent shock.
2
Page
7. Which of the following is a sign of hypocalcemia?
EXAMPREPMASTER
, A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Positive Chvostek sign
D. Bounding pulses
Rationale: Hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability; a positive Chvostek sign is
indicative.
8. A patient with DKA has K+ 3.2 mEq/L. Which is the priority intervention?
A. Start insulin infusion
B. Administer potassium replacement
C. Administer IV glucose
D. Encourage oral fluids
Rationale: Insulin shifts potassium into cells and can worsen hypokalemia, which can be fatal.
9. Which intervention helps prevent pressure ulcers in immobile patients?
A. Encourage high-protein diet
B. Reposition every 2 hours
C. Administer vitamin D
D. Restrict fluid intake
Rationale: Frequent repositioning reduces prolonged pressure on bony prominences, preventing
skin breakdown.
10. A patient is receiving heparin therapy. Which lab value must the nurse
monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. aPTT
C. INR
D. PT
Rationale: aPTT measures heparin efficacy and safety; therapeutic range is typically 60–80
seconds.
3
Page
EXAMPREPMASTER
