CLC NURSING EXAM 2025/2026 | Verified Questions and Correct Answers |
Graded A+ | Evidence-Based and Clinically Current
Clinical Learning Concepts (CLC) Nursing Examination | Key Domains: Patient Safety,
Clinical Judgement, Ethical Decision-Making, Communication, and Evidence-Based Nursing
Practice | Expert-Verified Q&A | Designed for Comprehensive Nursing Competency
Introduction
This 2025/2026 CLC Nursing Exam resource is designed to evaluate clinical competence
across essential nursing domains. It focuses on critical thinking, professional accountability,
patient-centered care, and evidence-based interventions that support safe and effective
nursing practice. The questions are written to reflect realistic nursing scenarios, aligning
with national standards for entry-level and advanced clinical nurses.
Answer Format
All correct answers are highlighted in bold green, with rationales that clarify nursing
judgment, reinforce patient safety, and connect clinical reasoning to best-practice outcomes.
PATIENT SAFETY (Questions 1 – 20)
1. A patient is prescribed warfarin 5 mg daily. The nurse notes the INR is 4.2. What is
the priority action?
a) Administer the dose as ordered
b) Hold the dose and notify the provider
c) Increase the dose to 7.5 mg
d) Administer vitamin K
Rationale: An INR >3.5 increases bleeding risk; therapeutic range for most
indications is 2.0–3.0. Holding the dose and notifying the provider prevents
hemorrhage (ISMP, 2025).
2. Which intervention best prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infections
(CAUTI)?
a) Daily catheter irrigation with saline
b) Early removal of indwelling catheters
c) Routine antibiotic prophylaxis
d) Changing the catheter weekly
Rationale: The strongest evidence-based practice is prompt removal of unnecessary
catheters (CDC, 2025).
3. A patient with a history of falls is admitted. What is the nurse’s first action?
a) Apply soft wrist restraints
b) Complete a fall risk assessment
c) Place the patient in a private room
d) Administer a sedative
Rationale: Fall-risk screening with validated tools (e.g., Morse Fall Scale) guides
individualized interventions (AHRQ, 2025).
4. The nurse is administering medications via a central line. What is the most critical
step to prevent infection?
a) Wear sterile gloves only
b) Scrub the hub for 15 seconds with alcohol
c) Flush with saline before use
, d) Change the dressing weekly
Rationale: Hub disinfection ≥15 s with alcohol or chlorhexidine is essential to prevent
CLABSI (INS, 2025).
5. A patient reports sudden chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse notes new ST elevation
on telemetry. What is the priority?
a) Administer aspirin 325 mg
b) Activate the STEMI protocol
c) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
d) Apply oxygen at 2 L/min
Rationale: Time is myocardium; rapid activation of the cardiac cath team is critical
for reperfusion (AHA, 2025).
6. During medication reconciliation the nurse discovers the patient takes herbal
supplements. What is the next step?
a) Discontinue all supplements
b) Document and assess for drug interactions
c) Ignore unless prescribed
d) Administer with medications
Rationale: Herbal products (e.g., St. John’s wort) can alter drug metabolism; full
disclosure is required (TJC, 2025).
7. A patient is scheduled for surgery but ate breakfast. What should the nurse do?
a) Proceed with surgery
b) Notify the surgical team immediately
c) Withhold only clear liquids
d) Administer antiemetics
Rationale: NPO violation increases aspiration risk; surgery may be delayed (ASA,
2025).
8. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the most important
verification step?
a) Check blood type only
b) Two-person verification of patient ID and blood product
c) Verify expiration date only
d) Start infusion at 100 mL/h
Rationale: Two licensed personnel must verify patient identity, blood type, and unit
number to prevent ABO incompatibility (AABB, 2025).
9. A pressure injury is identified on the sacrum. What is the first action?
a) Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
b) Stage the injury and document
c) Cleanse with normal saline
d) Offload pressure immediately
Rationale: Pressure relief is the primary intervention to prevent worsening (NPIAP,
2025).
10. The nurse observes a visitor entering with flu-like symptoms. What is the best
response?
a) Allow entry with a mask
b) Restrict visitation and notify infection control
c) Provide hand sanitizer only
d) Permit brief visit
Rationale: Visitors with infectious symptoms pose transmission risk (CDC, 2025).
, 11. A patient on telemetry suddenly develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the first
action?
a) Administer amiodarone
b) Assess pulse and responsiveness
c) Defibrillate at 200 J
d) Call a code blue
Rationale: Stable vs. unstable VT determines treatment; pulse check is first (AHA,
2025).
12. The nurse is delegating vital signs to a UAP. What must be included?
a) No instructions needed
b) Clear parameters for reporting abnormalities
c) Only blood pressure
d) Delegate all assessments
Rationale: Delegation requires specific reporting criteria (e.g., BP >160/100)
(NCSBN, 2025).
13. A patient with latex allergy is admitted. What is the priority safety measure?
a) Use powder-free gloves
b) Create a latex-safe environment
c) Apply a latex allergy bracelet only
d) Avoid all gloves
Rationale: All latex products must be removed from the patient area (FDA, 2025).
14. The nurse identifies a medication error. What is the first step?
a) Complete an incident report
b) Assess the patient for adverse effects
c) Notify the pharmacy
d) Inform the nurse manager
Rationale: Patient safety is priority; assessment guides further action (ISMP, 2025).
15. A rapid response is called for respiratory distress. What is the nurse’s role?
a) Wait for the team
b) Provide oxygen and prepare for intervention
c) Leave the room
d) Document only
Rationale: Early intervention improves outcomes; oxygen and airway support are
critical (IHI, 2025).
16. Hand hygiene compliance is monitored. What is the gold standard?
a) Alcohol-based hand rub
b) Soap and water for 40–60 s
c) Gloves only
d) Hand wipes
Rationale: ABHR is effective and efficient for non-soiled hands (WHO, 2025).
17. A patient is at risk for DVT. What is the best preventive measure?
a) Bed rest
b) Sequential compression devices (SCDs)
c) Aspirin daily
d) Elevate legs only
Rationale: Mechanical prophylaxis is first-line when anticoagulation is
contraindicated (ACCP, 2025).
Graded A+ | Evidence-Based and Clinically Current
Clinical Learning Concepts (CLC) Nursing Examination | Key Domains: Patient Safety,
Clinical Judgement, Ethical Decision-Making, Communication, and Evidence-Based Nursing
Practice | Expert-Verified Q&A | Designed for Comprehensive Nursing Competency
Introduction
This 2025/2026 CLC Nursing Exam resource is designed to evaluate clinical competence
across essential nursing domains. It focuses on critical thinking, professional accountability,
patient-centered care, and evidence-based interventions that support safe and effective
nursing practice. The questions are written to reflect realistic nursing scenarios, aligning
with national standards for entry-level and advanced clinical nurses.
Answer Format
All correct answers are highlighted in bold green, with rationales that clarify nursing
judgment, reinforce patient safety, and connect clinical reasoning to best-practice outcomes.
PATIENT SAFETY (Questions 1 – 20)
1. A patient is prescribed warfarin 5 mg daily. The nurse notes the INR is 4.2. What is
the priority action?
a) Administer the dose as ordered
b) Hold the dose and notify the provider
c) Increase the dose to 7.5 mg
d) Administer vitamin K
Rationale: An INR >3.5 increases bleeding risk; therapeutic range for most
indications is 2.0–3.0. Holding the dose and notifying the provider prevents
hemorrhage (ISMP, 2025).
2. Which intervention best prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infections
(CAUTI)?
a) Daily catheter irrigation with saline
b) Early removal of indwelling catheters
c) Routine antibiotic prophylaxis
d) Changing the catheter weekly
Rationale: The strongest evidence-based practice is prompt removal of unnecessary
catheters (CDC, 2025).
3. A patient with a history of falls is admitted. What is the nurse’s first action?
a) Apply soft wrist restraints
b) Complete a fall risk assessment
c) Place the patient in a private room
d) Administer a sedative
Rationale: Fall-risk screening with validated tools (e.g., Morse Fall Scale) guides
individualized interventions (AHRQ, 2025).
4. The nurse is administering medications via a central line. What is the most critical
step to prevent infection?
a) Wear sterile gloves only
b) Scrub the hub for 15 seconds with alcohol
c) Flush with saline before use
, d) Change the dressing weekly
Rationale: Hub disinfection ≥15 s with alcohol or chlorhexidine is essential to prevent
CLABSI (INS, 2025).
5. A patient reports sudden chest pain and dyspnea. The nurse notes new ST elevation
on telemetry. What is the priority?
a) Administer aspirin 325 mg
b) Activate the STEMI protocol
c) Obtain a 12-lead ECG
d) Apply oxygen at 2 L/min
Rationale: Time is myocardium; rapid activation of the cardiac cath team is critical
for reperfusion (AHA, 2025).
6. During medication reconciliation the nurse discovers the patient takes herbal
supplements. What is the next step?
a) Discontinue all supplements
b) Document and assess for drug interactions
c) Ignore unless prescribed
d) Administer with medications
Rationale: Herbal products (e.g., St. John’s wort) can alter drug metabolism; full
disclosure is required (TJC, 2025).
7. A patient is scheduled for surgery but ate breakfast. What should the nurse do?
a) Proceed with surgery
b) Notify the surgical team immediately
c) Withhold only clear liquids
d) Administer antiemetics
Rationale: NPO violation increases aspiration risk; surgery may be delayed (ASA,
2025).
8. The nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. What is the most important
verification step?
a) Check blood type only
b) Two-person verification of patient ID and blood product
c) Verify expiration date only
d) Start infusion at 100 mL/h
Rationale: Two licensed personnel must verify patient identity, blood type, and unit
number to prevent ABO incompatibility (AABB, 2025).
9. A pressure injury is identified on the sacrum. What is the first action?
a) Apply a hydrocolloid dressing
b) Stage the injury and document
c) Cleanse with normal saline
d) Offload pressure immediately
Rationale: Pressure relief is the primary intervention to prevent worsening (NPIAP,
2025).
10. The nurse observes a visitor entering with flu-like symptoms. What is the best
response?
a) Allow entry with a mask
b) Restrict visitation and notify infection control
c) Provide hand sanitizer only
d) Permit brief visit
Rationale: Visitors with infectious symptoms pose transmission risk (CDC, 2025).
, 11. A patient on telemetry suddenly develops ventricular tachycardia. What is the first
action?
a) Administer amiodarone
b) Assess pulse and responsiveness
c) Defibrillate at 200 J
d) Call a code blue
Rationale: Stable vs. unstable VT determines treatment; pulse check is first (AHA,
2025).
12. The nurse is delegating vital signs to a UAP. What must be included?
a) No instructions needed
b) Clear parameters for reporting abnormalities
c) Only blood pressure
d) Delegate all assessments
Rationale: Delegation requires specific reporting criteria (e.g., BP >160/100)
(NCSBN, 2025).
13. A patient with latex allergy is admitted. What is the priority safety measure?
a) Use powder-free gloves
b) Create a latex-safe environment
c) Apply a latex allergy bracelet only
d) Avoid all gloves
Rationale: All latex products must be removed from the patient area (FDA, 2025).
14. The nurse identifies a medication error. What is the first step?
a) Complete an incident report
b) Assess the patient for adverse effects
c) Notify the pharmacy
d) Inform the nurse manager
Rationale: Patient safety is priority; assessment guides further action (ISMP, 2025).
15. A rapid response is called for respiratory distress. What is the nurse’s role?
a) Wait for the team
b) Provide oxygen and prepare for intervention
c) Leave the room
d) Document only
Rationale: Early intervention improves outcomes; oxygen and airway support are
critical (IHI, 2025).
16. Hand hygiene compliance is monitored. What is the gold standard?
a) Alcohol-based hand rub
b) Soap and water for 40–60 s
c) Gloves only
d) Hand wipes
Rationale: ABHR is effective and efficient for non-soiled hands (WHO, 2025).
17. A patient is at risk for DVT. What is the best preventive measure?
a) Bed rest
b) Sequential compression devices (SCDs)
c) Aspirin daily
d) Elevate legs only
Rationale: Mechanical prophylaxis is first-line when anticoagulation is
contraindicated (ACCP, 2025).
