Cardiovascular Questions Final Exam 2025 Question and Answers Graded A

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has pulmonary edema related to heart failure. Which of the following findings indicates effective treatment of the client's condition? A. Absence of adventitious breath sounds B. Presence of a nonproductive cough C. Decrease in respiratory rate at rest D. SaO2 86% on room air - A. Absence of adventitious breath sounds Adventitious breath sounds occur when there is fluid in the lungs. The absence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that the pulmonary edema is resolving. 2. A nurse is caring for a client in the first 8 hr following coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. which of the following client findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. mediastinal drainage 100mL/hr B. blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg C. Temperature 37.1 (98.9) D. Potassium 3.8 mEq/L - B. blood pressure 160/80 mm Hg The nurse should report an elevated blood pressure following a CABG because increased vascular pressure can cause bleeding at the incision sites. 3. A nurse is caring for a client following insertion of a permanent pacemaker. Which of the following client statements indicates a potential complication of the insertion procedure? A. "I can't get rid of these hiccups." B. "I feel dizzy when I stand." C. "My incision site stings." D. "I have a headache." - A. "I can't get rid of these hiccups." Hiccups can indicate that the pacemaker is stimulating the chest wall or diaphragm, which can occur as a result of a lead wire perforation. 4. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client 1 hr following an aortic aneurysm repair. Which of the following findings can indicate shock and should be reported to the provider? A. Serosanguineous drainage on dressing B. Severe pain with coughing Cardiovascular Questions Final Exam 2025 Question and Answers Graded A C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr D. Increase in temperature from 36.8° C (98.2° F) to 37.5° C (99.5° F) - C. Urine output of 20 mL/hr Urine output less than 30 mL/hr is a manifestation of shock. Urine output is decreased due to a compensatory decreased blood flow to the kidneys, hypovolemia, or graft thrombosis or rupture. 5. A nurse is assessing a client who has dilated cardiomyopathy. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Dyspnea on exertion B. Tracheal deviation C. Pericardial rub D. Weight loss - A. Dyspnea on exertion The nurse should identify dyspnea on exertion as an expected manifestation of dilated cardiomyopathy. Dyspnea on exertion is due to ventricular compromise and reduced cardiac output. 6. A nurse is providing health teaching for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is at risk for developing peripheral arterial disease? A. A client who has hypothyroidism B. A client who has diabetes mellitus C. A client whose daily caloric intake consists of 25% fat D. A client who consumes two 12-oz bottles of beer a day - B. A client who has diabetes mellitus Diabetes mellitus places the client at risk for microvascular damage and progressive peripheral arterial disease. 7. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a client who has a blood pressure of 254/139 mm Hg. The nurse recognizes that the client is in a hypertensive crisis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Initiate seizure precautions B. Tell the client to report vision changes C. Elevate the head of the client's bed D. Start a peripheral IV - C. Elevate the head of the client's bed The greatest risk to this client is organ injury due to severe hypertension. Therefore, the first action the nurse should take is to elevate the head of the client's bed to reduce blood pressure and promote oxygenation. 8. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of deep-vein thrombosis and is receiving warfarin. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective? A. Hemoglobin 14 g/dL B. Minimal bruising of extremities C. Decreased blood pressure D. INR 2.0 - D. INR 2.0 The nurse should identify that an INR of 2.0 is within the desired reference range of 2.0 to 3.0 for a client who has a deep-vein thrombosis and is receiving warfarin to reduce the risk of new clot formation and a stroke. 9. A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted for treatment of left-sided heart failure with intravenous loop diuretics and digitalis therapy. The client is experiencing weakness and an irregular heart rate. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first? A. Obtain client's current weight. B. Review serum electrolyte values. C. Determine the time of the last digoxin dose. D. Check the client's urine output. - B. Review serum electrolyte values. Weakness and irregular heart rate indicate that the client is at the greatest risk for electrolyte imbalance, an adverse effect of loop diuretics. The first action the nurse should take is to review the client's electrolyte values, particularly the potassium level, because the client is at risk for dysrhythmias from hypokalemia. 10. A nurse is caring for a client who has a history of angina and is scheduled for exercise electrocardiography at 1100. Which of the following statements by the client requires the nurse to contact the provider for possible rescheduling? A. "I'm still hungry after the bowl of cereal I ate at 7 am." B. "I didn't take my heart pills this morning because the doctor told me not to." C. "I had chest pain a couple of times since I saw my doctor in the office last week." D. "I smoked a cigarette this morning to calm my nerves about having this procedure." - D. "I smoked a cigarette this morning to calm my nerves about having this procedure." Smoking prior to this test can change the outcome and places the client at additional risk. The procedure should be rescheduled if the client has smoked before the test