ISSA Corrective Exercise Specialist Final
Exam Latest 2024–2025 with Actual
Questions and Correct Verified Answers
/ Already Graded A+
Section 1: Fundamentals and Principles
1. What is the primary goal of Corrective Exercise?
A) To improve athletic performance
B) To identify and address muscle and movement imbalances ✓
C) To provide rehabilitation for injuries
D) To increase flexibility and strength simultaneously
2. The Corrective Exercise Continuum (CEC) consists of which four phases?
A) Assess, Inhibit, Activate, Integrate
B) Inhibit, Lengthen, Activate, Integrate ✓
C) Release, Stretch, Strengthen, Move
D) Identify, Correct, Progress, Maintain
3. Which of the following is a key principle of the "Inhibit" phase?
A) Performing dynamic stretches
B) Using self-myofascial release techniques on overactive tissues ✓
C) Activating underactive muscles with isolated exercises
D) Integrating movement patterns with resistance
4. A client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscles are typically overactive?
A) Gluteus Maximus and Hamstrings
B) Rectus Abdominis and Internal Obliques
C) Erector Spinae and Hip Flexors ✓
D) Transverse Abdominis and Multifidi
5. The "Activate" phase of the CEC primarily targets which type of tissues?
A) Overactive (tight) muscles
B) Underactive (weak) muscles ✓
,C) Fascial adhesions
D) Joint capsules
6. What is the main purpose of the "Integrate" phase?
A) To reduce tension and pain in tight muscles
B) To teach the nervous system to use corrected movements under load ✓
C) To improve local muscular endurance
D) To assess for new movement compensations
7. Which term refers to the ability to maintain proper joint alignment during movement?
A) Flexibility
B) Strength
C) Neuromuscular Efficiency ✓
D) Muscular Endurance
8. What is the kinetic chain?
A) A series of exercises for power development
B) The concept that the body is a system of linked segments, and movement at one joint affects
others ✓
C) A chain used for resistance training
D) The path of nerves throughout the body
9. Which of the following best describes a "synergistic dominance" pattern?
A) A muscle becomes short and tight
B) An agonist muscle becomes weak and its synergist compensates by overworking ✓
C) A muscle is inhibited and does not fire properly
D) Two muscles work together efficiently
10. Arthrokinematics refers to:
A) The movement of long bones
B) The study of human movement
C) The small, accessory movements within a joint ✓
D) The alignment of the spine
Section 2: Assessment & Observation
11. During a static postural assessment, a client has rounded shoulders and a forward head.
This is most likely indicative of overactivity in which muscles?
A) Mid/Lower Trapezius and Rhomboids
B) Serratus Anterior and Deep Cervical Flexors
,C) Upper Trapezius, Levator Scapulae, and Pectoralis Minor ✓
D) Gluteus Medius and Transverse Abdominis
12. The Overhead Squat Assessment (OHSA) is primarily used to observe:
A) Cardiovascular endurance
B) Neuromuscular control and movement compensations ✓
C) Maximum strength
D) Anaerobic power
13. During the OHSA, a client's knees move inward. This compensation is called?
A) Knee Varus
B) Knee Valgus ✓
C) Knee Hyperextension
D) Knee Flexion
14. What muscle imbalance is commonly associated with knee valgus during a squat?
A) Overactive hip abductors and underactive hip adductors
B) Overactive hip adductors and underactive hip abductors ✓
C) Overactive quadriceps and underactive hamstrings
D) Overactive gastrocnemius and underactive tibialis anterior
15. If a client's arms fall forward during the OHSA, this typically indicates overactivity in the
______ and underactivity in the ______.
A) Latissimus Dorsi; Deltoids
B) Pectoralis Major/Minor; Mid/Lower Trapezius and Rhomboids ✓
C) Triceps; Biceps
D) Rotator Cuff; Pectoralis Major
16. A "winging" of the scapula during a pushing assessment often indicates weakness in which
muscle?
A) Pectoralis Minor
B) Levator Scapulae
C) Serratus Anterior ✓
D) Supraspinatus
17. The Single-Leg Squat assessment is used to identify imbalances in:
A) Bilateral lower body strength
B) Dynamic stability and control of the stance leg ✓
C) Upper body power
D) Ankle dorsiflexion mobility only
, 18. During a gait assessment, a client exhibits an exaggerated lateral movement of the torso
during the stance phase. This is known as:
A) Steppage Gait
B) Trendelenburg Gait ✓
C) Scissor Gait
D) Ataxic Gait
19. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness primarily in which muscle?
A) Quadratus Lumborum
B) Gluteus Medius ✓
C) Adductor Longus
D) Tensor Fascia Latae
20. What does an excessive forward lean during the OHSA suggest?
A) Overactive hip flexors
B) Tight calf muscles
C) Underactive gluteus maximus and/or overactive hip flexors ✓
D) Overactive abdominals
Section 3: Inhibit & Lengthen Techniques
21. The primary tool used in the "Inhibit" phase is:
A) A resistance band
B) A foam roller or similar self-myofascial release tool ✓
C) A dumbbell
D) A balance board
22. When performing self-myofascial release (SMR) on the calf, the client should actively:
A) Extend and flex the knee
B) Pronate and supinate the foot
C) Dorsiflex and plantarflex the ankle ✓
D) Abduct and adduct the hip
23. SMR is believed to work primarily through which mechanism?
A) Breaking up scar tissue
B) Increasing muscle temperature
C) Autogenic inhibition and altering fascial density ✓
D) Hypertrophy of the muscle fibers
Exam Latest 2024–2025 with Actual
Questions and Correct Verified Answers
/ Already Graded A+
Section 1: Fundamentals and Principles
1. What is the primary goal of Corrective Exercise?
A) To improve athletic performance
B) To identify and address muscle and movement imbalances ✓
C) To provide rehabilitation for injuries
D) To increase flexibility and strength simultaneously
2. The Corrective Exercise Continuum (CEC) consists of which four phases?
A) Assess, Inhibit, Activate, Integrate
B) Inhibit, Lengthen, Activate, Integrate ✓
C) Release, Stretch, Strengthen, Move
D) Identify, Correct, Progress, Maintain
3. Which of the following is a key principle of the "Inhibit" phase?
A) Performing dynamic stretches
B) Using self-myofascial release techniques on overactive tissues ✓
C) Activating underactive muscles with isolated exercises
D) Integrating movement patterns with resistance
4. A client exhibits an anterior pelvic tilt. Which muscles are typically overactive?
A) Gluteus Maximus and Hamstrings
B) Rectus Abdominis and Internal Obliques
C) Erector Spinae and Hip Flexors ✓
D) Transverse Abdominis and Multifidi
5. The "Activate" phase of the CEC primarily targets which type of tissues?
A) Overactive (tight) muscles
B) Underactive (weak) muscles ✓
,C) Fascial adhesions
D) Joint capsules
6. What is the main purpose of the "Integrate" phase?
A) To reduce tension and pain in tight muscles
B) To teach the nervous system to use corrected movements under load ✓
C) To improve local muscular endurance
D) To assess for new movement compensations
7. Which term refers to the ability to maintain proper joint alignment during movement?
A) Flexibility
B) Strength
C) Neuromuscular Efficiency ✓
D) Muscular Endurance
8. What is the kinetic chain?
A) A series of exercises for power development
B) The concept that the body is a system of linked segments, and movement at one joint affects
others ✓
C) A chain used for resistance training
D) The path of nerves throughout the body
9. Which of the following best describes a "synergistic dominance" pattern?
A) A muscle becomes short and tight
B) An agonist muscle becomes weak and its synergist compensates by overworking ✓
C) A muscle is inhibited and does not fire properly
D) Two muscles work together efficiently
10. Arthrokinematics refers to:
A) The movement of long bones
B) The study of human movement
C) The small, accessory movements within a joint ✓
D) The alignment of the spine
Section 2: Assessment & Observation
11. During a static postural assessment, a client has rounded shoulders and a forward head.
This is most likely indicative of overactivity in which muscles?
A) Mid/Lower Trapezius and Rhomboids
B) Serratus Anterior and Deep Cervical Flexors
,C) Upper Trapezius, Levator Scapulae, and Pectoralis Minor ✓
D) Gluteus Medius and Transverse Abdominis
12. The Overhead Squat Assessment (OHSA) is primarily used to observe:
A) Cardiovascular endurance
B) Neuromuscular control and movement compensations ✓
C) Maximum strength
D) Anaerobic power
13. During the OHSA, a client's knees move inward. This compensation is called?
A) Knee Varus
B) Knee Valgus ✓
C) Knee Hyperextension
D) Knee Flexion
14. What muscle imbalance is commonly associated with knee valgus during a squat?
A) Overactive hip abductors and underactive hip adductors
B) Overactive hip adductors and underactive hip abductors ✓
C) Overactive quadriceps and underactive hamstrings
D) Overactive gastrocnemius and underactive tibialis anterior
15. If a client's arms fall forward during the OHSA, this typically indicates overactivity in the
______ and underactivity in the ______.
A) Latissimus Dorsi; Deltoids
B) Pectoralis Major/Minor; Mid/Lower Trapezius and Rhomboids ✓
C) Triceps; Biceps
D) Rotator Cuff; Pectoralis Major
16. A "winging" of the scapula during a pushing assessment often indicates weakness in which
muscle?
A) Pectoralis Minor
B) Levator Scapulae
C) Serratus Anterior ✓
D) Supraspinatus
17. The Single-Leg Squat assessment is used to identify imbalances in:
A) Bilateral lower body strength
B) Dynamic stability and control of the stance leg ✓
C) Upper body power
D) Ankle dorsiflexion mobility only
, 18. During a gait assessment, a client exhibits an exaggerated lateral movement of the torso
during the stance phase. This is known as:
A) Steppage Gait
B) Trendelenburg Gait ✓
C) Scissor Gait
D) Ataxic Gait
19. The Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness primarily in which muscle?
A) Quadratus Lumborum
B) Gluteus Medius ✓
C) Adductor Longus
D) Tensor Fascia Latae
20. What does an excessive forward lean during the OHSA suggest?
A) Overactive hip flexors
B) Tight calf muscles
C) Underactive gluteus maximus and/or overactive hip flexors ✓
D) Overactive abdominals
Section 3: Inhibit & Lengthen Techniques
21. The primary tool used in the "Inhibit" phase is:
A) A resistance band
B) A foam roller or similar self-myofascial release tool ✓
C) A dumbbell
D) A balance board
22. When performing self-myofascial release (SMR) on the calf, the client should actively:
A) Extend and flex the knee
B) Pronate and supinate the foot
C) Dorsiflex and plantarflex the ankle ✓
D) Abduct and adduct the hip
23. SMR is believed to work primarily through which mechanism?
A) Breaking up scar tissue
B) Increasing muscle temperature
C) Autogenic inhibition and altering fascial density ✓
D) Hypertrophy of the muscle fibers
