PN2003 FULL SET OF EXAMINATION QUESTIONS WITH
EVERY ANSWER VERIFIED AS CORRECT AND UPDATED
TO THE MOST RECENT VERSION
1. Q: What is the normal range for cardiac output? ANSWER 4-8 litres
per minute in adults at rest.
2. Q: What are the classic signs of left-sided heart failure? ANSWER
Dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pulmonary crackles,
and pink frothy sputum.
3. Q: What is the primary purpose of ACE inhibitors in heart failure?
ANSWER: To reduce afterload by preventing conversion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II, decreasing vasoconstriction.
4. Q: What ECG changes indicate myocardial infarction? ANSWER
ST-segment elevation, T-wave inversion, and pathological Q waves.
5. Q: What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?
ANSWER Stable angina is predictable and relieved by rest; unstable
angina is unpredictable, occurs at rest, and indicates increased MI risk.
6. Q: What are the troponin levels indicative of MI? ANSWER Elevated
troponin I >0.4 ng/mL or troponin T >0.1 ng/mL indicate myocardial
damage.
7. Q: What is Virchow's triad? ANSWER Three factors promoting
thrombosis: venous stasis, hypercoagulability, and endothelial injury.
8. Q: What are the signs of right-sided heart failure? ANSWER
Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
9. Q: What is the target INR for patients on warfarin for atrial
fibrillation? ANSWER 2.0-3.0 for most indications.
,10.Q: What is the most common cause of hypertension? ANSWER
Essential (primary) hypertension with no identifiable cause accounts for
90-95% of cases.
11.Q: What are the hypertensive crisis blood pressure values?
ANSWER Systolic BP >180 mmHg and/or diastolic BP >120 mmHg.
12.Q: What is pericarditis and its characteristic sign? ANSWER
Inflammation of the pericardium; characterized by sharp chest pain
relieved by sitting forward and a pericardial friction rub.
13.Q: What is cardiac tamponade? ANSWER Compression of the heart
due to fluid accumulation in the pericardial space, causing decreased
cardiac output.
14.Q: What are Beck's triad signs? ANSWER Hypotension, muffled heart
sounds, and jugular venous distention indicating cardiac tamponade.
15.Q: What is the Valsalva maneuver used for? ANSWER To terminate
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia by increasing vagal tone.
16.Q: What medication class is metoprolol? ANSWER Beta-blocker
(selective beta-1 adrenergic receptor blocker).
17.Q: What are contraindications for thrombolytic therapy? ANSWER
Active bleeding, recent surgery, stroke history, uncontrolled
hypertension, and bleeding disorders.
18.Q: What is the normal ejection fraction? ANSWER 55-70% in
healthy adults.
19.Q: What does an S3 heart sound indicate? ANSWER Volume
overload, often heard in heart failure.
20.Q: What does an S4 heart sound indicate? ANSWER Atrial
contraction against a stiff ventricle, seen in hypertension and ischemic
heart disease.
21.Q: What is atrial fibrillation? ANSWER Irregular, rapid atrial
activation without organized atrial contraction, increasing stroke risk.
22.Q: What is the CHADS2 score used for? ANSWER Assessing stroke
risk in atrial fibrillation patients to guide anticoagulation therapy.
23.Q: What are symptoms of peripheral arterial disease? ANSWER
Intermittent claudication, cool extremities, absent pulses, and tissue
necrosis.
, 24.Q: What is the ankle-brachial index? ANSWER Ratio of ankle to arm
blood pressure; <0.9 indicates peripheral arterial disease.
25.Q: What is Raynaud's phenomenon? ANSWER Vasospasm causing
color changes in fingers/toes in response to cold or stress.
26.Q: What are varicose veins? ANSWER Dilated, tortuous superficial
veins due to incompetent valves.
27.Q: What is deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis? ANSWER Early
ambulation, compression stockings, and anticoagulation in high-risk
patients.
28.Q: What is aortic stenosis? ANSWER Narrowing of the aortic valve
causing obstruction of left ventricular outflow.
29.Q: What is mitral valve prolapse? ANSWER Backward displacement
of mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole.
30.Q: What is endocarditis prophylaxis needed for? ANSWER Certain
dental and surgical procedures in patients with specific cardiac
conditions.
31.Q: What organism most commonly causes infective endocarditis?
ANSWER Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans.
32.Q: What are Duke criteria? ANSWER Diagnostic criteria for infective
endocarditis based on blood cultures and echocardiographic findings.
33.Q: What is pulsus paradoxus? ANSWER Exaggerated decrease in
systolic BP >10 mmHg during inspiration, seen in tamponade.
34.Q: What is orthostatic hypotension? ANSWER Drop in systolic BP
≥20 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing.
35.Q: What are digoxin toxicity symptoms? ANSWER Nausea, vomiting,
visual disturbances, and cardiac arrhythmias.
36.Q: What is therapeutic digoxin level? ANSWER 0.5-2.0 ng/mL.
37.Q: What is cardioversion? ANSWER Synchronized electrical shock to
restore normal sinus rhythm.
38.Q: What is defibrillation? ANSWER Unsynchronized electrical shock
used for ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
39.Q: What is cardiogenic shock? ANSWER Inadequate tissue perfusion
due to cardiac pump failure.
EVERY ANSWER VERIFIED AS CORRECT AND UPDATED
TO THE MOST RECENT VERSION
1. Q: What is the normal range for cardiac output? ANSWER 4-8 litres
per minute in adults at rest.
2. Q: What are the classic signs of left-sided heart failure? ANSWER
Dyspnea, orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pulmonary crackles,
and pink frothy sputum.
3. Q: What is the primary purpose of ACE inhibitors in heart failure?
ANSWER: To reduce afterload by preventing conversion of angiotensin I
to angiotensin II, decreasing vasoconstriction.
4. Q: What ECG changes indicate myocardial infarction? ANSWER
ST-segment elevation, T-wave inversion, and pathological Q waves.
5. Q: What is the difference between stable and unstable angina?
ANSWER Stable angina is predictable and relieved by rest; unstable
angina is unpredictable, occurs at rest, and indicates increased MI risk.
6. Q: What are the troponin levels indicative of MI? ANSWER Elevated
troponin I >0.4 ng/mL or troponin T >0.1 ng/mL indicate myocardial
damage.
7. Q: What is Virchow's triad? ANSWER Three factors promoting
thrombosis: venous stasis, hypercoagulability, and endothelial injury.
8. Q: What are the signs of right-sided heart failure? ANSWER
Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and ascites.
9. Q: What is the target INR for patients on warfarin for atrial
fibrillation? ANSWER 2.0-3.0 for most indications.
,10.Q: What is the most common cause of hypertension? ANSWER
Essential (primary) hypertension with no identifiable cause accounts for
90-95% of cases.
11.Q: What are the hypertensive crisis blood pressure values?
ANSWER Systolic BP >180 mmHg and/or diastolic BP >120 mmHg.
12.Q: What is pericarditis and its characteristic sign? ANSWER
Inflammation of the pericardium; characterized by sharp chest pain
relieved by sitting forward and a pericardial friction rub.
13.Q: What is cardiac tamponade? ANSWER Compression of the heart
due to fluid accumulation in the pericardial space, causing decreased
cardiac output.
14.Q: What are Beck's triad signs? ANSWER Hypotension, muffled heart
sounds, and jugular venous distention indicating cardiac tamponade.
15.Q: What is the Valsalva maneuver used for? ANSWER To terminate
paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia by increasing vagal tone.
16.Q: What medication class is metoprolol? ANSWER Beta-blocker
(selective beta-1 adrenergic receptor blocker).
17.Q: What are contraindications for thrombolytic therapy? ANSWER
Active bleeding, recent surgery, stroke history, uncontrolled
hypertension, and bleeding disorders.
18.Q: What is the normal ejection fraction? ANSWER 55-70% in
healthy adults.
19.Q: What does an S3 heart sound indicate? ANSWER Volume
overload, often heard in heart failure.
20.Q: What does an S4 heart sound indicate? ANSWER Atrial
contraction against a stiff ventricle, seen in hypertension and ischemic
heart disease.
21.Q: What is atrial fibrillation? ANSWER Irregular, rapid atrial
activation without organized atrial contraction, increasing stroke risk.
22.Q: What is the CHADS2 score used for? ANSWER Assessing stroke
risk in atrial fibrillation patients to guide anticoagulation therapy.
23.Q: What are symptoms of peripheral arterial disease? ANSWER
Intermittent claudication, cool extremities, absent pulses, and tissue
necrosis.
, 24.Q: What is the ankle-brachial index? ANSWER Ratio of ankle to arm
blood pressure; <0.9 indicates peripheral arterial disease.
25.Q: What is Raynaud's phenomenon? ANSWER Vasospasm causing
color changes in fingers/toes in response to cold or stress.
26.Q: What are varicose veins? ANSWER Dilated, tortuous superficial
veins due to incompetent valves.
27.Q: What is deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis? ANSWER Early
ambulation, compression stockings, and anticoagulation in high-risk
patients.
28.Q: What is aortic stenosis? ANSWER Narrowing of the aortic valve
causing obstruction of left ventricular outflow.
29.Q: What is mitral valve prolapse? ANSWER Backward displacement
of mitral valve leaflets into the left atrium during systole.
30.Q: What is endocarditis prophylaxis needed for? ANSWER Certain
dental and surgical procedures in patients with specific cardiac
conditions.
31.Q: What organism most commonly causes infective endocarditis?
ANSWER Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus viridans.
32.Q: What are Duke criteria? ANSWER Diagnostic criteria for infective
endocarditis based on blood cultures and echocardiographic findings.
33.Q: What is pulsus paradoxus? ANSWER Exaggerated decrease in
systolic BP >10 mmHg during inspiration, seen in tamponade.
34.Q: What is orthostatic hypotension? ANSWER Drop in systolic BP
≥20 mmHg or diastolic BP ≥10 mmHg within 3 minutes of standing.
35.Q: What are digoxin toxicity symptoms? ANSWER Nausea, vomiting,
visual disturbances, and cardiac arrhythmias.
36.Q: What is therapeutic digoxin level? ANSWER 0.5-2.0 ng/mL.
37.Q: What is cardioversion? ANSWER Synchronized electrical shock to
restore normal sinus rhythm.
38.Q: What is defibrillation? ANSWER Unsynchronized electrical shock
used for ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
39.Q: What is cardiogenic shock? ANSWER Inadequate tissue perfusion
due to cardiac pump failure.
