NPTE PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A 45-year-old male presents with right shoulder pain and
limited abduction. Passive range of motion shows pain at 120°
of abduction, and positive Hawkin’s test. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Rotator cuff tear
B. Adhesive capsulitis
C. Subacromial impingement syndrome
D. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis
Rationale: Subacromial impingement typically presents with
pain during mid-range abduction and a positive Hawkins-
Kennedy test. Adhesive capsulitis would limit both active and
passive ROM throughout the range, and osteoarthritis usually
presents with stiffness and crepitus.
2. Which nerve is most likely involved in foot drop?
A. Tibial
B. Common peroneal
,C. Femoral
D. Sciatic
Rationale: The common peroneal nerve innervates the
anterior tibialis and other dorsiflexors. Injury results in foot
drop. Tibial nerve injury affects plantarflexion, femoral affects
knee extension, and sciatic injury is more proximal.
3. In a patient with COPD, which breathing technique helps
reduce dyspnea during activity?
A. Apical breathing
B. Pursed-lip breathing
C. Segmental breathing
D. Inspiratory hold
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway patency
during exhalation and improves gas exchange, which reduces
dyspnea in COPD patients.
4. The Brunnstrom stages of stroke recovery are useful for:
A. Sensory re-education
B. Assessing motor recovery
C. Cognitive assessment
D. Gait training
,Rationale: Brunnstrom stages describe motor recovery
following stroke, from flaccidity to near-normal movement
patterns.
5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for
a patient with a recent myocardial infarction during inpatient
PT?
A. High-intensity resistance training
B. Unsupervised treadmill walking
C. Low-intensity, monitored ambulation
D. Electrical stimulation
Rationale: Early cardiac rehab emphasizes low-intensity,
closely monitored activity to avoid cardiac stress. High-
intensity or unsupervised exercise can be dangerous
immediately post-MI.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely if a patient
experiences muscle weakness, lethargy, and arrhythmias?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
, Rationale: Hypokalemia presents with muscle weakness,
fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias due to decreased
neuromuscular excitability.
7. For a patient with anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,
the primary goal during the first week post-op is:
A. Plyometric training
B. Resistance training
C. Control swelling and restore knee extension
D. Jogging
Rationale: Initial rehab focuses on controlling edema,
restoring extension, and initiating quadriceps activation,
avoiding high-stress exercises.
8. Which type of gait abnormality is most commonly seen in
Parkinson’s disease?
A. Antalgic gait
B. Trendelenburg gait
C. Shuffling gait with small steps
D. Hemiplegic gait
Rationale: Parkinsonian gait is characterized by shuffling
steps, reduced arm swing, and difficulty initiating movement.
CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026 Q&A
| INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. A 45-year-old male presents with right shoulder pain and
limited abduction. Passive range of motion shows pain at 120°
of abduction, and positive Hawkin’s test. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Rotator cuff tear
B. Adhesive capsulitis
C. Subacromial impingement syndrome
D. Glenohumeral osteoarthritis
Rationale: Subacromial impingement typically presents with
pain during mid-range abduction and a positive Hawkins-
Kennedy test. Adhesive capsulitis would limit both active and
passive ROM throughout the range, and osteoarthritis usually
presents with stiffness and crepitus.
2. Which nerve is most likely involved in foot drop?
A. Tibial
B. Common peroneal
,C. Femoral
D. Sciatic
Rationale: The common peroneal nerve innervates the
anterior tibialis and other dorsiflexors. Injury results in foot
drop. Tibial nerve injury affects plantarflexion, femoral affects
knee extension, and sciatic injury is more proximal.
3. In a patient with COPD, which breathing technique helps
reduce dyspnea during activity?
A. Apical breathing
B. Pursed-lip breathing
C. Segmental breathing
D. Inspiratory hold
Rationale: Pursed-lip breathing helps maintain airway patency
during exhalation and improves gas exchange, which reduces
dyspnea in COPD patients.
4. The Brunnstrom stages of stroke recovery are useful for:
A. Sensory re-education
B. Assessing motor recovery
C. Cognitive assessment
D. Gait training
,Rationale: Brunnstrom stages describe motor recovery
following stroke, from flaccidity to near-normal movement
patterns.
5. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for
a patient with a recent myocardial infarction during inpatient
PT?
A. High-intensity resistance training
B. Unsupervised treadmill walking
C. Low-intensity, monitored ambulation
D. Electrical stimulation
Rationale: Early cardiac rehab emphasizes low-intensity,
closely monitored activity to avoid cardiac stress. High-
intensity or unsupervised exercise can be dangerous
immediately post-MI.
6. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely if a patient
experiences muscle weakness, lethargy, and arrhythmias?
A. Hypercalcemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypokalemia
D. Hypophosphatemia
, Rationale: Hypokalemia presents with muscle weakness,
fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias due to decreased
neuromuscular excitability.
7. For a patient with anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,
the primary goal during the first week post-op is:
A. Plyometric training
B. Resistance training
C. Control swelling and restore knee extension
D. Jogging
Rationale: Initial rehab focuses on controlling edema,
restoring extension, and initiating quadriceps activation,
avoiding high-stress exercises.
8. Which type of gait abnormality is most commonly seen in
Parkinson’s disease?
A. Antalgic gait
B. Trendelenburg gait
C. Shuffling gait with small steps
D. Hemiplegic gait
Rationale: Parkinsonian gait is characterized by shuffling
steps, reduced arm swing, and difficulty initiating movement.
