FLIGHT DISPATCHER SKILLS TEST- ORALS 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
What are the regulatory requirements for obtaining a dispatcher license? - (answer) (Applicant may
state the general requirements, or look up for the regulation) LI 2000 Part 2.8:
The applicant for a flight operations officer licence shall be
not less than 21years of age.
a. receive an approved training course from an authorized
instructor on the knowledge areas;
b. have received an endorsement for the knowledge test
from an authorized instructor;
c. pass the required knowledge test.
d. comply with the requirements of 2.8.3 (c) & (d)
What is the definition of an "alternate airport"? - (answer) An airport at which an aircraft may land if
landing at the intended airport becomes inadvisable.
What is an Air Operator Certificate? - (answer) A certificate authorising an operator to carry out
specified commercial air transport operations.
What is a Controlled Flight? - (answer) Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance
Is your license required to be in your possession at all times? - (answer) No. Your FD license must be in
your possession whenever you are acting as a Flight dispatcher and exercising authority in coordinating
with Pilot in command for a flight operating under air commerce.
How often must dispatchers complete operating familiarization flights? - (answer) Operating
familiarization flights are required every 12 calendar months.
What amount of operating familiarization flight time is required for dispatchers? - (answer) Two
complete flights over routes representative of
those for which that person is assigned duties.
,FLIGHT DISPATCHER SKILLS TEST- ORALS 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
Ground Recurrent Training for Dispatchers shall include at least which subject areas: - (answer) (1)
Aircraft-specific flight preparation;
(2) Dispatch resource management (human performance); and
(3) Recognition or transportation of dangerous goods.
When is a takeoff alternate required? - (answer) If it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome
of departure.
What information shall the pilot
include in his arrival report? - (answer) 1.Aircraft identification
2.Departure aerodrome;
3. Destination aerodrome (only in the case of a diversionary landing);
4. Arrival aerodrome; and
5. Time of arrival
Once you get employed at an airline what are the training and qualification requirements? - (answer)
Ans: Basic Indoc- 40 hours, initial ground school, Operational Familiarization
(OF) and Competency Check.
What section of the Operations Specifications list all the authorized aircrafts of the AOC Holder? -
(answer) Section E
What must an aircraft dispatcher do in terms of responsibility for operational control? - (answer) 1.
Monitor the progress of each flight
2. Deliver safety related information to the flight
3. Cancel or re-dispatch the flight if it
, FLIGHT DISPATCHER SKILLS TEST- ORALS 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
cannot continue safely
Can a dispatcher declare an emergency? - (answer) Yes. The dispatcher should notify the PIC as soon
as possible. If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the PIC, they must do whatever is necessary and
outlined in the Operations manual to deal with the emergency
What is the definition of Operational Control? - (answer) Operational control, with respect to a flight,
means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
What are the requirements for computing the required fuel for IFR flight (turbojet)? - (answer) ( 1)Fly
to the first point of intended landing and execute an instrument approach;
(2) Execute a missed approach and fly from that
aerodrome to the most critical (in terms of fuel
consumption) alternate aerodrome, if required; and
(3) Fly thereafter at normal cruising speed:
for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at 1,500 ft.
(450 metres) above the aerodrome, plus a reserve for
contingencies specified by the operator and approved by the Authority.
Each operator shall ensure that each takeoff alternate specified shall be located within (for two engine
aircraft) - - (answer) one hour flight time at single-engine cruise speed
unless the aircraft and crew are authorised for EDTO;
A flight dispatcher will not release a flight unless he is familiar and certain the anticipated loading of the
aircraft and the proposed operation will not exceed the- - (answer) 1. Centre of gravity limits
2. Aircraft operating limitations
3. Minimum performance requirements
Name at least six information that must
DETAILED ANSWERS
What are the regulatory requirements for obtaining a dispatcher license? - (answer) (Applicant may
state the general requirements, or look up for the regulation) LI 2000 Part 2.8:
The applicant for a flight operations officer licence shall be
not less than 21years of age.
a. receive an approved training course from an authorized
instructor on the knowledge areas;
b. have received an endorsement for the knowledge test
from an authorized instructor;
c. pass the required knowledge test.
d. comply with the requirements of 2.8.3 (c) & (d)
What is the definition of an "alternate airport"? - (answer) An airport at which an aircraft may land if
landing at the intended airport becomes inadvisable.
What is an Air Operator Certificate? - (answer) A certificate authorising an operator to carry out
specified commercial air transport operations.
What is a Controlled Flight? - (answer) Any flight which is subject to an air traffic control clearance
Is your license required to be in your possession at all times? - (answer) No. Your FD license must be in
your possession whenever you are acting as a Flight dispatcher and exercising authority in coordinating
with Pilot in command for a flight operating under air commerce.
How often must dispatchers complete operating familiarization flights? - (answer) Operating
familiarization flights are required every 12 calendar months.
What amount of operating familiarization flight time is required for dispatchers? - (answer) Two
complete flights over routes representative of
those for which that person is assigned duties.
,FLIGHT DISPATCHER SKILLS TEST- ORALS 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
Ground Recurrent Training for Dispatchers shall include at least which subject areas: - (answer) (1)
Aircraft-specific flight preparation;
(2) Dispatch resource management (human performance); and
(3) Recognition or transportation of dangerous goods.
When is a takeoff alternate required? - (answer) If it would not be possible to return to the aerodrome
of departure.
What information shall the pilot
include in his arrival report? - (answer) 1.Aircraft identification
2.Departure aerodrome;
3. Destination aerodrome (only in the case of a diversionary landing);
4. Arrival aerodrome; and
5. Time of arrival
Once you get employed at an airline what are the training and qualification requirements? - (answer)
Ans: Basic Indoc- 40 hours, initial ground school, Operational Familiarization
(OF) and Competency Check.
What section of the Operations Specifications list all the authorized aircrafts of the AOC Holder? -
(answer) Section E
What must an aircraft dispatcher do in terms of responsibility for operational control? - (answer) 1.
Monitor the progress of each flight
2. Deliver safety related information to the flight
3. Cancel or re-dispatch the flight if it
, FLIGHT DISPATCHER SKILLS TEST- ORALS 2023-2024 ACTUAL EXAM 200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS
cannot continue safely
Can a dispatcher declare an emergency? - (answer) Yes. The dispatcher should notify the PIC as soon
as possible. If the dispatcher cannot communicate with the PIC, they must do whatever is necessary and
outlined in the Operations manual to deal with the emergency
What is the definition of Operational Control? - (answer) Operational control, with respect to a flight,
means the exercise of authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.
What are the requirements for computing the required fuel for IFR flight (turbojet)? - (answer) ( 1)Fly
to the first point of intended landing and execute an instrument approach;
(2) Execute a missed approach and fly from that
aerodrome to the most critical (in terms of fuel
consumption) alternate aerodrome, if required; and
(3) Fly thereafter at normal cruising speed:
for 30 minutes in a holding pattern at 1,500 ft.
(450 metres) above the aerodrome, plus a reserve for
contingencies specified by the operator and approved by the Authority.
Each operator shall ensure that each takeoff alternate specified shall be located within (for two engine
aircraft) - - (answer) one hour flight time at single-engine cruise speed
unless the aircraft and crew are authorised for EDTO;
A flight dispatcher will not release a flight unless he is familiar and certain the anticipated loading of the
aircraft and the proposed operation will not exceed the- - (answer) 1. Centre of gravity limits
2. Aircraft operating limitations
3. Minimum performance requirements
Name at least six information that must
