OEC TEST ALL EXAM Questions and Verified ANSWERs With 100% Complete Solutions.

1. What is the first step of the OEC patient assessment process? A) Physical exam B) Form a general impression C) Obtain a SAMPLE history D) Check vital signs ANSWER: B) Form a general impression 2. The "A" in the AVPU scale stands for: A) Awake B) Alert C) Active D) Ambulatory ANSWER: B) Alert 3. Which of the following is a sign of inadequate breathing? A) Regular chest rise and fall B) Pink, warm, dry skin C) No audible sounds of breathing D) Breathing rate of 12 breaths per minute ANSWER: C) No audible sounds of breathing 4. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR performed by a single rescuer is: A) 15:2 B) 30:2 C) 5:1 D) 15:1 ANSWER: B) 30:2 5. The "S" in SAMPLE history stands for: A) Symptoms B) Signs C) Situation D) Safety ANSWER: A) Symptoms 6. When should the cervical spine be immobilized? A) Only if the patient complains of neck pain B) Whenever a head, neck, or spinal injury is suspected C) Only after a full neurological exam D) Only for unconscious patients ANSWER: B) Whenever a head, neck, or spinal injury is suspected 7. The pulse point most commonly used to assess circulation in an infant is the: A) Radial artery B) Carotid artery C) Brachial artery D) Femoral artery ANSWER: C) Brachial artery 8. A patient showing signs of cyanosis is most likely suffering from: A) Hypoxia B) Hyperthermia C) Hypoglycemia D) Hypertension ANSWER: A) Hypoxia 9. The "Golden Hour" in trauma care refers to: A) The first hour of sunlight for search and rescue B) The critical one-hour time period following a traumatic injury to receive definitive care C) The time it takes to package a patient for transport D) The optimal time to start an IV ANSWER: B) The critical one-hour time period following a traumatic injury to receive definitive care 10. Nitroglycerin is a medication used for chest pain that works by: A) Dilating coronary arteries B) Increasing heart rate C) Clotting blood D) Decreasing respirations ANSWER: A) Dilating coronary arteries 11. An automated external defibrillator (AED) is used to treat: A) Respiratory arrest B) Cardiac arrest C) Seizures D) Stroke ANSWER: B) Cardiac arrest 12. When using an AED, you should: A) Continue CPR while the AED is analyzing B) Ensure no one is touching the patient during analysis and shock delivery C) Place the pads directly over a pacemaker D) Use pediatric pads on an adult if necessary ANSWER: B) Ensure no one is touching the patient during analysis and shock delivery 13. The primary purpose of a tourniquet is to: A) Control minor bleeding B) Control severe, life-threatening bleeding from an extremity C) Be used as a first resort for all bleeding D) Replace direct pressure ANSWER: B) Control severe, life-threatening bleeding from an extremity 14. Signs and symptoms of shock include: A) Bradycardia and hypertension B) Warm, red, dry skin C) Altered mental status, rapid pulse, cool/clammy skin D) Increased urine output ANSWER: C) Altered mental status, rapid pulse, cool/clammy skin 15. The most reliable indicator of hypoxia in a patient is: A) Cyanosis B) Altered mental status C) Patient complaint of shortness of breath D) Tachypnea ANSWER: B) Altered mental status 16. When managing a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the OEC technician should: A) Perform a full spine palpation to locate the injury B) Manually stabilize the head and neck until the patient is fully immobilized C) Have the patient slowly sit up to test for pain D) Only immobilize if pain is present ANSWER: B) Manually stabilize the head and neck until the patient is fully immobilized 17. The "DCAP-BTLS" mnemonic is used during the: A) History taking B) Physical exam C) Scene size-up D) Vital sign assessment ANSWER: B) Physical exam 18. A patient with a core body temperature below 95°F (35°C) is experiencing: A) Heat stroke B) Hypothermia C) Hyperthermia D) Frostbite ANSWER: B) Hypothermia 19. The correct first aid for a superficial frostbite injury is: A) Rub the area vigorously with snow B) Break any blisters that form C) Gradually rewarm the area with skin-to-skin contact or warm water D) Apply a heat pack directly to the skin ANSWER: C) Gradually rewarm the area with skin-to-skin contact or warm water 20. The "E" in the AVPU scale stands for: A) Excellent B) Eyes open C) Emergency D) Responsive to painful stimuli ANSWER: D) Responsive to painful stimuli 21. A patient experiencing an acute asthma attack will likely have: A) Clear breath sounds and bradypnea B) Wheezing and difficulty exhaling C) Rales (crackles) and productive cough D) Stridor and drooling ANSWER: B) Wheezing and difficulty exhaling 22. An epinephrine auto-injector is used to treat a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis) by: A) Dilating the bronchioles and constricting blood vessels B) Lowering blood pressure C) Acting as a powerful antihistamine D) Reducing inflammation ANSWER: A) Dilating the bronchioles and constricting blood vessels 23. The "OPQRST" mnemonic is used to assess: A) The mechanism of injury B) A patient's pain C) A patient's past medical history D) The scene safety ANSWER: B) A patient's pain 24. When assisting a patient with their prescribed inhaler, you should: A) Administer one puff and wait 30 minutes for the next B) Shake the inhaler and have the patient exhale deeply before administering C) Hold the inhaler 12 inches from the patient's mouth D) Only administer it if the patient is unconscious ANSWER: B) Shake the inhaler and have the patient exhale deeply before administering 25. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses: A) Eye, verbal, and motor response B) Pulse, motor, and sensory function C) Blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate D) Airway, breathing, and circulation ANSWER: A) Eye, verbal, and motor response 26. A blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg would be classified as: A) Hypotension B) Normal C) Hypertension D) Shock ANSWER: C) Hypertension 27. The "M" in SAMPLE history stands for: A) Mechanism of injury B) Medications C) Mental status D) Main complaint ANSWER: B) Medications 28. When log-rolling a patient with a suspected spinal injury, the team leader is responsible for: A) Stabilizing the head and neck B) Commanding the roll C) Managing the feet D) Checking for injuries on the back ANSWER: B) Commanding the roll 29. A patient with diabetes who is confused and combative is most likely experiencing: A) Hyperglycemia B) Hypoglycemia C) A stroke D) A seizure ANSWER: B) Hypoglycemia 30. The appropriate first-line treatment for a conscious hypoglycemic patient is to: A) Administer insulin B) Give oral glucose or a sugary drink C) Have them lie down and rest D) Encourage deep breathing ANSWER: B) Give oral glucose or a sugary drink 31. A tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizure is characterized by: A) A brief staring spell B) Violent muscle contractions and relaxation C) Inability to speak D) Weakness on one side of the body ANSWER: B) Violent muscle contractions and relaxation 32. During a seizure, your priority is to: A) Place a bite block in the patient's mouth B) Restrain the patient to prevent injury C) Protect the patient from harming themselves D) Administer oxygen immediately ANSWER: C) Protect the patient from harming themselves 33. The "C" in DCAP-BTLS stands for: A) Cyanosis B) Contusions C) Clamminess D) Crepitus ANSWER: B) Contusions 34. A flail chest segment is identified by: A) A sucking chest wound B) Paradoxical movement during respiration C) Equal chest rise and fall D) Crepitus upon palpation ANSWER: B) Paradoxical movement during respiration 35. The initial treatment for a tension pneumothorax may include: A) Applying an occlusive dressing B) Needle decompression C) Administering nitroglycerin D) Performing abdominal thrusts ANSWER: B) Needle decompression 36. Signs of a basilar skull fracture may include: A) Bruising behind the ears (Battle's sign) B) Deformity of the cervical spine C) A swollen tongue D) Jugular vein distention ANSWER: A) Bruising behind the ears (Battle's sign) 37. The recommended method for opening the airway of a trauma patient with a suspected spinal injury is the: A) Head-tilt/chin-lift maneuver B) Jaw-thrust maneuver C) Chin-lift maneuver D) Head-tilt maneuver ANSWER: B) Jaw-thrust maneuver 38. A patient with a "tripod" position is likely having difficulty with: A) Breathing B) Circulation C) Digestion D) Vision ANSWER: A) Breathing 39. Capillary refill is a reliable sign of perfusion in: A) Adult patients only B) Pediatric patients only C) All age groups D) Hypothermic patients ANSWER: B) Pediatric patients only 40. The normal respiratory rate for an adult at rest is: A) 8-10 breaths per minute B) 12-20 breaths per minute C) 22-30 breaths per minute D) 30-40 breaths per minute ANSWER: B) 12-20 breaths per minute 41. A patient with hot, red, dry skin could be suffering from: A) Heat exhaustion B) Heat stroke C) Hypothermia D) Febrile seizure ANSWER: B) Heat stroke 42. The primary treatment for heat stroke is: A) Giving fluids by mouth B) Rapid cooling C) Warming the patient with blankets D) Massaging the extremities ANSWER: B) Rapid cooling 43. The mnemonic "FAST" is used to assess for: A) Cardiac arrest B) Stroke C) Hypoglycemia D) Fractures ANSWER: B) Stroke 44. The "F" in FAST stands for: A) Fever B) Face (facial droop) C) Fracture D) Fatigue ANSWER: B) Face (facial droop) 45. When managing an impaled object, you should: A) Remove it to control bleeding B) Stabilize it in place with bulky dressings C) Apply pressure directly on the object D) Cut the object shorter for easier transport ANSWER: B) Stabilize it in place with bulky dressings 46. A patient with jugular vein distention (JVD) and tracheal deviation may have a: A) Simple pneumothorax B) Tension pneumothorax C) Hemothorax D) Flail chest ANSWER: B) Tension pneumothorax 47. The purpose of a traction splint is to: A) Immobilize a dislocated knee B) Immobilize a suspected hip fracture C) Immobilize a suspected femur fracture D) Reduce pain in an ankle fracture ANSWER: C) Immobilize a suspected femur fracture 48. The six "Ps" of musculoskeletal assessment are: A) Pain, Pallor, Paresthesia, Pressure, Paralysis, Pulselessness B) Pain, Position, Pressure, Puncture, Pallor, Paralysis C) Pallor, Puncture, Pain, Pulse, Pressure, Position D) Pain, Pallor, Puncture, Pulse, Pressure, Paralysis ANSWER: A) Pain, Pallor, Paresthesia, Pressure, Paralysis, Pulselessness 49. A compartment syndrome results from: A) A fracture that breaks the skin B) Increased pressure within a muscle compartment, compromising circulation C) A dislocation of a major joint D) A sprain of a ligament ANSWER: B) Increased pressure within a muscle compartment, compromising circulation 50. The RICE protocol for musculoskeletal injuries stands for: A) Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation B) Relax, Ice, Comfort, Elevation C) Rest, Immobilize, Cold, Evaluate D) Reduce, Ice, Compress, Elevate ANSWER: A) Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation 51. A patient with a suspected pelvic fracture should be: A) Log-rolled onto a backboard B) Moved into a sitting position C) Immobilized using a long backboard and pelvic binder D) Allowed to walk to aid for assessment ANSWER: C) Immobilized using a long backboard and pelvic binder 52. The most common cause of cardiac arrest in children is: A) Cardiac arrhythmia B) Respiratory failure C) Trauma D) Poisoning ANSWER: B) Respiratory failure 53. When performing CPR on an infant, the depth of compression should be: A) 1 inch B) 2 inches C) About 1.5 inches (4 cm) D) About 1/3 the depth of the chest ANSWER: D) About 1/3 the depth of the chest 54. The leading cause of death in the 1-44 age group is: A) Heart disease B) Cancer C) Trauma D) Diabetes ANSWER: C) Trauma 55. The "D" in the AVPU scale stands for: A) Disoriented B) Deaf C) Decerebrate D) The patient is unresponsive to all stimuli ANSWER: A) Disoriented