(150 Questions) | Answers & Rationales Included |
2025/2026 Edition
Q1. What is the normal range for adult blood pressure?
A) 80/50 mmHg
B) 120/80 mmHg
C) 140/90 mmHg
D) 100/60 mmHg
Rationale: The standard normal adult blood pressure is around 120/80 mmHg.
Values significantly above or below may indicate hypertension or hypotension.
Q2. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with vomiting?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypernatremia
D) Hyponatremia
Rationale: Vomiting causes loss of gastric contents rich in potassium, leading to
hypokalemia.
Q3. A nurse is administering a medication that is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Which category does it most likely belong to?
A) Category A
B) Category B
C) Category C
D) Category X
Rationale: Category X medications are contraindicated in pregnancy due to
proven fetal risk.
,Q4. The nurse is caring for a client receiving IV morphine. Which is the priority
assessment?
A) Bowel sounds
B) Respiratory rate
C) Urine output
D) Blood pressure
Rationale: Morphine can depress respirations; monitoring respiratory rate is
essential to detect opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Q5. A client with heart failure has edema in the lower extremities. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A) Elevate the legs above heart level
B) Encourage prolonged standing
C) Restrict fluids completely
D) Apply cold compresses
Rationale: Elevating the legs helps reduce dependent edema by promoting venous
return.
Q6. Which lab value indicates hypokalemia?
A) 4.0 mEq/L
B) 2.8 mEq/L
C) 5.0 mEq/L
D) 3.8 mEq/L
Rationale: Normal potassium is 3.5–5.0 mEq/L. Values below 3.5 indicate
hypokalemia.
,Q7. Which intervention is appropriate for a client with a nasogastric tube for
suction?
A) Assess tube placement before feeding
B) Flush tube once per week
C) Leave head of bed flat during feeding
D) Clamp tube permanently
Rationale: Tube placement should be verified to prevent aspiration; head of bed
should be elevated, and flushing should follow protocol.
Q8. Which action best prevents medication errors?
A) Follow the “five rights” of medication administration
B) Administer quickly to all clients
C) Skip verifying allergies if documented
D) Rely on memory
Rationale: The “five rights” (right patient, drug, dose, route, time) reduce the risk
of errors.
Q9. Which finding requires immediate intervention in a client on oxygen therapy?
A) O₂ sat 92%
B) Slight nasal dryness
C) O₂ sat 84%
D) Warm skin
Rationale: Oxygen saturation below 90% indicates hypoxemia and requires
prompt intervention.
Q10. A client with chronic kidney disease has potassium 6.2 mEq/L. What is the
priority intervention?
A) Notify the provider and prepare for treatment
, B) Encourage oral potassium intake
C) Document only
D) Restrict fluids only
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is life-threatening; immediate intervention is required to
prevent cardiac arrhythmias.
Q11. A nurse is preparing to administer a subcutaneous injection. Which site is
appropriate?
A) Dorsal hand
B) Forearm
C) Abdomen
D) Scalp
Rationale: The abdomen is preferred for subcutaneous injections due to consistent
fat layer and absorption.
Q12. A client with COPD is experiencing dyspnea. Which intervention is most
effective?
A) Encourage lying flat
B) Elevate head of bed
C) Limit fluid intake
D) Apply warm compress
Rationale: Elevating the head improves lung expansion and facilitates easier
breathing.
Q13. Which action is appropriate for preventing hospital-acquired infections?
A) Perform hand hygiene before and after client contact
B) Wear gloves at all times regardless of contact
C) Avoid cleaning equipment
D) Limit reporting of infections