HESI PN Exit Exam V1-7 Practice Nursing Diploma,
Vancouver Island University (2025/2026) – Actual NGN
Format with Verified Questions and 100% Correct
Answer Keys
HESI Exit exam V1-7
The mother of a child with cerebral palsy (CP) ask the nurse if her child's impaired movements
will worsen as the child grows. Which response provides the best explanation?
a. Brain damage with CP is not progressive but does have a variable course
b. CP is one of the most common permanent physical disability in children
c. Severe motor dysfunction determines the extent of successful habilitation
d. Continued development of the brain lesion determines the child's outcome.
Brain damage with CP is not progressive but does have a variable course
Rationale: CP is nonprogressive cerebral insult due to asphyxia, brain malformation, or toxicity,
such as kernicterus. It is characterized by impair movement, posturing and may include
perceptual, expressive and intellectual deficits, but the motor disabilities can vary as the child
grows (A) and as interventions are implemented to prevent disuse complications.
In early septic shock states, what is the primary cause of hypotension?
a. Peripheral vasoconstriction
b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Cardiac failure
d. A vagal response
,Peripheral vasodilation
Rationale: Toxins released by bacteria in septic shock create massive peripheral vasodilation and
increase microvascular permeability at the site of the bacterial invasion.
A client diagnosed with calcium kidney stones has a history of gout. A new prescription for
aluminum hydroxide (Amphogel) is scheduled to begin at 0730. Which client medication
should the nurse bring to the healthcare provider's attention?
a. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
b. Aspirin, low dose
c. Furosemide (lasix)
d. Enalapril (vasote)
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Rationale: The effectiveness of allopurinol is diminished when aluminum hydroxide is used
leading to an increased chance for gout flare ups. The healthcare provider should be alerted
about the allopurinol interaction so any changes in medication regimen may be considered.
A male client's laboratory results include a platelet count of 105,000/ mm3 Based on this
finding the nurse should include which action in the client's plan of care?
a. Cluster care to conserve energy
b. Initiate contact isolation
c. Encourage him to use an electric razor
d. Asses him for adventitious lung sounds
Encourage him to use an electric razor
Rationale: This client is at risk for bleeding based on his platelet count (normal 150,000 to
400,000/ mm3). Safe practices, such as using an electric razor for shaving, should be
encouraged to reduce the risk of bleeding.
A client is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a brain attack, commonly referred to as
a stroke or cerebral vascular accident (CVA). The nurse should request a referral for speech
therapy if the client exhibits which finding?
a. Abnormal responses for cranial nerves I and II
b. Persistent coughing while drinking
,c. Unilateral facial drooping
d. Inappropriate or exaggerated mood swings
Persistent coughing while drinking
Rationale: After a stroke, clients may experience dysphagia and an impaired gag reflex that is
evaluated by a speech pathology team. Coughing while drinking results from impaired
swallowing and gag reflex, so a referral to a speech therapist is indicated to evaluate the
coordination of oral movements associated with speech and deglutination. Cranial nerves I and
II are sensory nerves for taste and sight and do not require a referral to speech pathology.
Unilateral facial drooping is associated with stroke but is not a focus of rehabilitation. D sre not
addressed by speech therapy.
At 1615, prior to ambulating a postoperative client for the first time, the nurse reviews the
client's medical record. Based on date contained in the record, what action should the nurse
take before assisting the client with ambulation:
a. Remove sequential compression devices.
b. Apply PRN oxygen per nasal cannula.
c. Administer a PRN dose of an antipyretic.
d. Reinforce the surgical wound dressing.
Remove sequential compression devices.
Rationale: Sequential compression devices should be removed prior to ambulation and there is
no indication that this action is contraindicated. The client's oxygen saturation levels have been
within normal limits for the previous four hours, so supplemental oxygen is not warranted.
Which assessment finding for a client who is experiencing pontine myelinolysis should the
nurse report to the healthcare provider?
a. Sudden dysphagia
b. Blurred visual field
c. Gradual weakness
d. Profuse diarrhea
Sudden dysphagia
Rationale: Osmotic demyelination, also known as pontine myelinolysis, results in destruction of
the myelin sheath that covers nerve cell in the brainstem. This condition can be caused by rapid
, correction of hyponatremia and is often seen in those with syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone, Symptoms of pontine myelinolysis are sudden and can include dysphagia,
para or quadriparesis and dysarthria. Due to the risk of aspiration the healthcare provider
should be notified of the client's sudden onset of difficulty swallowing dysphagia (A). Diplopia
not blurred vision (B) may be experienced. Weakness occurs suddenly, rather than gradually (C).
Constipation, not diarrhea (D), is common due to decreased motility.
A client is scheduled to receive an IW dose of ondansetron (Zofran) eight hours after receiving
chemotherapy. The client has saline lock and is sleeping quietly without any restlessness. The
nurse caring for the client is not certified in chemotherapy administration. What action should
the nurse take?
a. Ask a chemotherapy-certified nurse to administer the Zofran
b. Administer the Zofran after flushing the saline lock with saline
c. Hold the scheduled dose of Zofran until the client awakens
d. Awaken the client to assess the need for administration of the Zofran.
Administer the Zofran after flushing the saline lock with saline
Rationale: Zofran is an antiemetic administered before and after chemotherapy to prevent
vomiting. The nurse should administer the antiemetic using the accepter technique for IV
administration via saline lock. Zofran is not a chemotherapy drug and does not need to be
administered by a chemotherapy- certified nurse.
When providing diet teaching for a client with cholecystitis, which types of food choices the
nurse recommend to the client?
a. High protein
b. Low fat
c. Low sodium
d. High carbohydrate.
low fat
Rationale: A client with cholecystitis is at risk of gall stones that can be move into the biliary
tract and cause pain or obstruction. Reducing dietary fat decrease stimulation of the gall
bladder, so bile can be expelled, along with possible stones, into the biliary tract and small
intestine.
Vancouver Island University (2025/2026) – Actual NGN
Format with Verified Questions and 100% Correct
Answer Keys
HESI Exit exam V1-7
The mother of a child with cerebral palsy (CP) ask the nurse if her child's impaired movements
will worsen as the child grows. Which response provides the best explanation?
a. Brain damage with CP is not progressive but does have a variable course
b. CP is one of the most common permanent physical disability in children
c. Severe motor dysfunction determines the extent of successful habilitation
d. Continued development of the brain lesion determines the child's outcome.
Brain damage with CP is not progressive but does have a variable course
Rationale: CP is nonprogressive cerebral insult due to asphyxia, brain malformation, or toxicity,
such as kernicterus. It is characterized by impair movement, posturing and may include
perceptual, expressive and intellectual deficits, but the motor disabilities can vary as the child
grows (A) and as interventions are implemented to prevent disuse complications.
In early septic shock states, what is the primary cause of hypotension?
a. Peripheral vasoconstriction
b. Peripheral vasodilation
c. Cardiac failure
d. A vagal response
,Peripheral vasodilation
Rationale: Toxins released by bacteria in septic shock create massive peripheral vasodilation and
increase microvascular permeability at the site of the bacterial invasion.
A client diagnosed with calcium kidney stones has a history of gout. A new prescription for
aluminum hydroxide (Amphogel) is scheduled to begin at 0730. Which client medication
should the nurse bring to the healthcare provider's attention?
a. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
b. Aspirin, low dose
c. Furosemide (lasix)
d. Enalapril (vasote)
Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Rationale: The effectiveness of allopurinol is diminished when aluminum hydroxide is used
leading to an increased chance for gout flare ups. The healthcare provider should be alerted
about the allopurinol interaction so any changes in medication regimen may be considered.
A male client's laboratory results include a platelet count of 105,000/ mm3 Based on this
finding the nurse should include which action in the client's plan of care?
a. Cluster care to conserve energy
b. Initiate contact isolation
c. Encourage him to use an electric razor
d. Asses him for adventitious lung sounds
Encourage him to use an electric razor
Rationale: This client is at risk for bleeding based on his platelet count (normal 150,000 to
400,000/ mm3). Safe practices, such as using an electric razor for shaving, should be
encouraged to reduce the risk of bleeding.
A client is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a brain attack, commonly referred to as
a stroke or cerebral vascular accident (CVA). The nurse should request a referral for speech
therapy if the client exhibits which finding?
a. Abnormal responses for cranial nerves I and II
b. Persistent coughing while drinking
,c. Unilateral facial drooping
d. Inappropriate or exaggerated mood swings
Persistent coughing while drinking
Rationale: After a stroke, clients may experience dysphagia and an impaired gag reflex that is
evaluated by a speech pathology team. Coughing while drinking results from impaired
swallowing and gag reflex, so a referral to a speech therapist is indicated to evaluate the
coordination of oral movements associated with speech and deglutination. Cranial nerves I and
II are sensory nerves for taste and sight and do not require a referral to speech pathology.
Unilateral facial drooping is associated with stroke but is not a focus of rehabilitation. D sre not
addressed by speech therapy.
At 1615, prior to ambulating a postoperative client for the first time, the nurse reviews the
client's medical record. Based on date contained in the record, what action should the nurse
take before assisting the client with ambulation:
a. Remove sequential compression devices.
b. Apply PRN oxygen per nasal cannula.
c. Administer a PRN dose of an antipyretic.
d. Reinforce the surgical wound dressing.
Remove sequential compression devices.
Rationale: Sequential compression devices should be removed prior to ambulation and there is
no indication that this action is contraindicated. The client's oxygen saturation levels have been
within normal limits for the previous four hours, so supplemental oxygen is not warranted.
Which assessment finding for a client who is experiencing pontine myelinolysis should the
nurse report to the healthcare provider?
a. Sudden dysphagia
b. Blurred visual field
c. Gradual weakness
d. Profuse diarrhea
Sudden dysphagia
Rationale: Osmotic demyelination, also known as pontine myelinolysis, results in destruction of
the myelin sheath that covers nerve cell in the brainstem. This condition can be caused by rapid
, correction of hyponatremia and is often seen in those with syndrome of inappropriate
antidiuretic hormone, Symptoms of pontine myelinolysis are sudden and can include dysphagia,
para or quadriparesis and dysarthria. Due to the risk of aspiration the healthcare provider
should be notified of the client's sudden onset of difficulty swallowing dysphagia (A). Diplopia
not blurred vision (B) may be experienced. Weakness occurs suddenly, rather than gradually (C).
Constipation, not diarrhea (D), is common due to decreased motility.
A client is scheduled to receive an IW dose of ondansetron (Zofran) eight hours after receiving
chemotherapy. The client has saline lock and is sleeping quietly without any restlessness. The
nurse caring for the client is not certified in chemotherapy administration. What action should
the nurse take?
a. Ask a chemotherapy-certified nurse to administer the Zofran
b. Administer the Zofran after flushing the saline lock with saline
c. Hold the scheduled dose of Zofran until the client awakens
d. Awaken the client to assess the need for administration of the Zofran.
Administer the Zofran after flushing the saline lock with saline
Rationale: Zofran is an antiemetic administered before and after chemotherapy to prevent
vomiting. The nurse should administer the antiemetic using the accepter technique for IV
administration via saline lock. Zofran is not a chemotherapy drug and does not need to be
administered by a chemotherapy- certified nurse.
When providing diet teaching for a client with cholecystitis, which types of food choices the
nurse recommend to the client?
a. High protein
b. Low fat
c. Low sodium
d. High carbohydrate.
low fat
Rationale: A client with cholecystitis is at risk of gall stones that can be move into the biliary
tract and cause pain or obstruction. Reducing dietary fat decrease stimulation of the gall
bladder, so bile can be expelled, along with possible stones, into the biliary tract and small
intestine.
