NRNP 6550 Final Exam () – Advanced
Practice Care of Women Across the Lifespan | Walden
University | Verified Questions and Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A
100 VERIFIED QUESTIONS | ANSWERS IN RED | FULL CLINICAL RATIONALES
ADVANCED PRACTICE CARE OF ADULTS IN ACUTE CARE SETTINGS NO
A/B/C/D | NO TRUE/FALSE | NO SELECT ALL | LATEST CURRICULUM
SECTION 1: ACUTE CARE ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTICS (Q1–10)
Q1. What is the first step in the initial assessment of a patient presenting with chest pain in the
acute care setting? The first step is to obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes of arrival.
Rationale: STEMI guidelines (AHA/ACC); rapid ECG identifies ischemia or infarction for
timely reperfusion.
Q2. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause. Rationale: Gram-positive diplococci;
CURB-65 score guides admission.
Q3. What laboratory finding is diagnostic for diabetic ketoacidosis? Serum bicarbonate <18
mEq/L with anion gap >10 and positive ketones. Rationale: Metabolic acidosis from
ketoacids; pH <7.3.
Q4. What is the initial fluid resuscitation volume for septic shock? 30 mL/kg crystalloid within
the first 3 hours. Rationale: Surviving Sepsis Campaign; lactate-guided therapy.
Q5. What is the hallmark ECG finding in pericarditis? Diffuse ST-segment elevation with PR
depression. Rationale: Concave upward ST; friction rub on exam.
, Q6. What is the most sensitive test for pulmonary embolism? CT pulmonary angiography
(CTPA) is the most sensitive test. Rationale: Gold standard; D-dimer for low-probability
Wells score.
Q7. What is the primary indicator of acute kidney injury? Increase in serum creatinine by ≥0.3
mg/dL within 48 hours or urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h for 6 hours. Rationale: KDIGO
criteria; prerenal, intrinsic, postrenal classification.
Q8. What is the diagnostic criterion for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
PaO2/FiO2 ≤300 with bilateral opacities not fully explained by cardiac failure. Rationale:
Berlin definition; PEEP ≥5 cmH2O.
Q9. What is the most common electrolyte abnormality in hospitalized patients? Hyponatremia
is the most common. Rationale: SIADH, diuretics, heart failure; correct slowly to avoid
osmotic demyelination.
Q10. What is the initial imaging for suspected appendicitis? Abdominal CT with contrast is
the initial imaging. Rationale: Sensitivity >95%; Alvarado score guides.
SECTION 2: CARDIOVASCULAR EMERGENCIES (Q11–20)
Q11. What is the first-line treatment for unstable ventricular tachycardia with pulse?
Synchronized cardioversion is first-line. Rationale: ACLS; amiodarone if stable.
Q12. What is the target blood pressure in aortic dissection? Systolic BP 100–120 mmHg and
heart rate 60–80 bpm. Rationale: Beta blocker (esmolol) + vasodilator (nitroprusside).
Q13. What is the mechanism of action of ticagrelor? P2Y12 receptor antagonist (ADP
inhibitor). Rationale: Faster onset than clopidogrel; dyspnea side effect.
Practice Care of Women Across the Lifespan | Walden
University | Verified Questions and Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A
100 VERIFIED QUESTIONS | ANSWERS IN RED | FULL CLINICAL RATIONALES
ADVANCED PRACTICE CARE OF ADULTS IN ACUTE CARE SETTINGS NO
A/B/C/D | NO TRUE/FALSE | NO SELECT ALL | LATEST CURRICULUM
SECTION 1: ACUTE CARE ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTICS (Q1–10)
Q1. What is the first step in the initial assessment of a patient presenting with chest pain in the
acute care setting? The first step is to obtain a 12-lead ECG within 10 minutes of arrival.
Rationale: STEMI guidelines (AHA/ACC); rapid ECG identifies ischemia or infarction for
timely reperfusion.
Q2. What is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults?
Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause. Rationale: Gram-positive diplococci;
CURB-65 score guides admission.
Q3. What laboratory finding is diagnostic for diabetic ketoacidosis? Serum bicarbonate <18
mEq/L with anion gap >10 and positive ketones. Rationale: Metabolic acidosis from
ketoacids; pH <7.3.
Q4. What is the initial fluid resuscitation volume for septic shock? 30 mL/kg crystalloid within
the first 3 hours. Rationale: Surviving Sepsis Campaign; lactate-guided therapy.
Q5. What is the hallmark ECG finding in pericarditis? Diffuse ST-segment elevation with PR
depression. Rationale: Concave upward ST; friction rub on exam.
, Q6. What is the most sensitive test for pulmonary embolism? CT pulmonary angiography
(CTPA) is the most sensitive test. Rationale: Gold standard; D-dimer for low-probability
Wells score.
Q7. What is the primary indicator of acute kidney injury? Increase in serum creatinine by ≥0.3
mg/dL within 48 hours or urine output <0.5 mL/kg/h for 6 hours. Rationale: KDIGO
criteria; prerenal, intrinsic, postrenal classification.
Q8. What is the diagnostic criterion for acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?
PaO2/FiO2 ≤300 with bilateral opacities not fully explained by cardiac failure. Rationale:
Berlin definition; PEEP ≥5 cmH2O.
Q9. What is the most common electrolyte abnormality in hospitalized patients? Hyponatremia
is the most common. Rationale: SIADH, diuretics, heart failure; correct slowly to avoid
osmotic demyelination.
Q10. What is the initial imaging for suspected appendicitis? Abdominal CT with contrast is
the initial imaging. Rationale: Sensitivity >95%; Alvarado score guides.
SECTION 2: CARDIOVASCULAR EMERGENCIES (Q11–20)
Q11. What is the first-line treatment for unstable ventricular tachycardia with pulse?
Synchronized cardioversion is first-line. Rationale: ACLS; amiodarone if stable.
Q12. What is the target blood pressure in aortic dissection? Systolic BP 100–120 mmHg and
heart rate 60–80 bpm. Rationale: Beta blocker (esmolol) + vasodilator (nitroprusside).
Q13. What is the mechanism of action of ticagrelor? P2Y12 receptor antagonist (ADP
inhibitor). Rationale: Faster onset than clopidogrel; dyspnea side effect.
