Mandatory III (3) Exam 2022 || VERIFIED QUESTIONS &
100% CORRECT ANSWERS || COMPLETE STUDY SET
Description: The Prophecy Core Mandatory III 2022
exam file contains 100% correct and verified answers.
Covers patient safety, infection control, HIPAA, and
healthcare compliance. Designed for medical
professionals completing mandatory Prophecy
healthcare assessments.
Keywords: Prophecy Core Mandatory III healthcare
compliance infection control HIPAA training patient
safety Prophecy assessment nursing exam medical
certification mandatory training verified
Prophecy Core Mandatory III (3) - 100 Verified Questions & Answers
Patient Safety
1. What is the correct sequence for performing a focused physical assessment?
A) Palpation, Inspection, Auscultation, Percussion
B) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
C) Auscultation, Inspection, Palpation, Percussion
D) Inspection, Auscultation, Palpation, Percussion
Answer: B) Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, Auscultation
,2. The "Two-Patient Identifier" rule requires checking which of the following?
A) Room number and diagnosis
B) Patient's name and date of birth
C) Patient's name and room number
D) Date of birth and physician's name
Answer: B) Patient's name and date of birth
3. What is the primary purpose of a Rapid Response Team (RRT)?
A) To perform emergency surgery
B) To intervene when a patient's condition is deteriorating
C) To replace the code blue team
D) To manage family complaints
Answer: B) To intervene when a patient's condition is deteriorating
4. Which action is most critical in preventing patient falls?
A) Keeping the bed in the highest position
B) Placing all beds in a locked, low position
C) Using side rails at all times
D) Tying a restraint around the patient's waist
Answer: B) Placing all beds in a locked, low position
5. During hand-off communication, the SBAR tool stands for:
A) Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
B) Safety, Background, Action, Response
C) Situation, Behavior, Assessment, Result
D) Summary, Background, Assessment, Readback
Answer: A) Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation
6. A patient is at high risk for suicide. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
A) Check on the patient every 2 hours.
B) Provide a one-to-one sitter at all times.
C) Remove all personal belongings.
D) Administer a sedative as needed.
Answer: B) Provide a one-to-one sitter at all times.
7. What is the correct order of priority for multiple patients with the following issues: a
patient with a nosebleed, a patient complaining of chest pain, and a patient requesting a glass
of water?
A) Chest pain, nosebleed, water
B) Nosebleed, chest pain, water
, C) Water, nosebleed, chest pain
D) Chest pain, water, nosebleed
Answer: A) Chest pain, nosebleed, water
8. The use of physical restraints requires:
A) A verbal order from a physician at the end of the shift.
B) A written, time-limited order from a physician.
C) Family consent only.
D) Nursing judgment without an order.
Answer: B) A written, time-limited order from a physician.
9. What is the best way to confirm the correct placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube before
feeding?
A) Auscultate over the epigastrium while injecting air.
B) Check the pH of the aspirated gastric contents.
C) Ask the patient to speak.
D) Obtain an X-ray.
Answer: D) Obtain an X-ray.
10. To prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP), the head of the bed should be
elevated to what degree?
A) 10-15 degrees
B) 30-45 degrees
C) 90 degrees
D) Flat as tolerated
Answer: B) 30-45 degrees
Infection Control
11. What is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection?
A) Wearing a gown and gloves
B) Proper hand hygiene
C) Using antimicrobial soap
D) Placing patients in isolation
Answer: B) Proper hand hygiene
12. Which type of precaution is used for a patient with tuberculosis?
A) Contact Precautions
B) Droplet Precautions
C) Airborne Precautions