HAZWOPER 40 - Final Exam Questions and ANSWERs 100% Pass| Graded A+

1. What does HAZWOPER stand for? a) Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response b) Hazardous Workplace Operations and Emergency Recovery c) Hazardous Worker Occupational and Environmental Rights d) Hazardous Waste Operational and Environmental Response ANSWER: a) Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response 2. Which OSHA standard specifically covers HAZWOPER training? a) 29 CFR 1910.121 b) 29 CFR 1910.120 c) 29 CFR 1926.65 d) Both b and c ANSWER: d) Both b and c 3. The primary objective of the HAZWOPER standard is to: a) Protect the environment from corporate pollution. b) Protect workers from safety and health hazards at hazardous waste sites. c) Ensure the proper disposal of all hazardous waste. d) Train firefighters for structural fires. ANSWER: b) Protect workers from safety and health hazards at hazardous waste sites. 4. Which of the following is NOT a major route of entry for hazardous chemicals? a) Inhalation b) Injection c) Ingestion d) Telepathy ANSWER: d) Telepathy 5. A chemical with an Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health (IDLH) concentration is defined as: a) A concentration that poses an immediate threat of cancer. b) A concentration that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape. c) Any concentration that requires the use of a respirator. d) The concentration listed on the product's label. ANSWER: b) A concentration that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape. 6. The Permissible Exposure Limit (PEL) is: a) The maximum concentration of a chemical a worker can be exposed to over an 8-hour workday. b) A recommended exposure limit set by NIOSH. c) The level at which a chemical becomes flammable. d) The same as the IDLH value. ANSWER: a) The maximum concentration of a chemical a worker can be exposed to over an 8-hour workday. 7. The purpose of a Site Safety and Health Plan (SSHP) is to: a) Satisfy OSHA paperwork requirements. b) Inform the public about site operations. c) Identify and control site-specific hazards to protect worker safety and health. d) Replace the need for personal protective equipment. ANSWER: c) Identify and control site-specific hazards to protect worker safety and health. 8. Which agency is responsible for enforcing workplace safety and health standards in the United States? a) EPA b) OSHA c) NIOSH d) DOT ANSWER: b) OSHA 9. The "Action Level" is the exposure level at which: a) A site must be evacuated immediately. b) OSHA enforcement actions begin. c) Certain provisions of a standard, such as medical surveillance and monitoring, must be initiated. d) A chemical is considered to be a carcinogen. ANSWER: c) Certain provisions of a standard, such as medical surveillance and monitoring, must be initiated. 10. The primary purpose of air monitoring at a hazardous waste site is to: a) Determine the background levels of common gases. b) Identify and quantify airborne contaminants to assess worker exposure. c) Fulfill a requirement of the EPA. d) Calibrate the monitoring equipment. ANSWER: b) Identify and quantify airborne contaminants to assess worker exposure. 11. A Confined Space has which of the following characteristics? a) Large enough to enter, limited means of entry/exit, and not designed for continuous occupancy. b) Contains a hazardous atmosphere at all times. c) Is always a permit-required confined space. d) Is designed for human occupancy. ANSWER: a) Large enough to enter, limited means of entry/exit, and not designed for continuous occupancy. 12. A Permit-Required Confined Space has one or more of the following: a) Contains a hazardous atmosphere. b) Contains a material with the potential for engulfment. c) Has an internal configuration that could trap or asphyxiate an entrant. d) All of the above. ANSWER: d) All of the above. 13. The "Safety Data Sheet" (SDS) provides information on: a) The cost of a chemical. b) Hazard identification, composition, first-aid measures, and handling of a chemical. c) The company's stock performance. d) Only the physical hazards of a chemical. ANSWER: b) Hazard identification, composition, first-aid measures, and handling of a chemical. 14. The SDS section that provides information on stable and unstable chemical combinations is: a) Section 2: Hazard Identification b) Section 7: Handling and Storage c) Section 10: Stability and Reactivity d) Section 11: Toxicological Information ANSWER: c) Section 10: Stability and Reactivity 15. The NFPA 704 diamond indicates: a) The shipping company's logo. b) The hazards of a material (health, flammability, instability) using a numerical scale of 0-4. c) The chemical's expiration date. d) The price per gallon of the chemical. ANSWER: b) The hazards of a material (health, flammability, instability) using a numerical scale of 0-4. 16. In the NFPA 704 system, what does a "4" in the blue section indicate? a) A slight health hazard. b) A material that is extremely flammable. c) A material that is a severe health hazard. d) A material that is stable. ANSWER: c) A material that is a severe health hazard. 17. The purpose of medical surveillance under HAZWOPER is to: a) Provide free healthcare for life. b) Assess and monitor the health of workers who are exposed to hazardous substances. c) Replace the need for engineering controls. d) Ensure workers are strong enough to lift heavy equipment. ANSWER: b) Assess and monitor the health of workers who are exposed to hazardous substances. 18. Who is required to have a medical surveillance program? a) All employees at a company. b) Only workers who wear respirators. c) Workers who are exposed to hazardous substances at or above the PEL, those who wear respirators for 30 days or more per year, and those involved in emergency response. d) Only the Site Safety Officer. ANSWER: c) Workers who are exposed to hazardous substances at or above the PEL, those who wear respirators for 30 days or more per year, and those involved in emergency response. 19. Decontamination (decon) is the process of: a) Removing or neutralizing contaminants that have accumulated on personnel and equipment. b) Cleaning up a hazardous waste spill. c) Disposing of hazardous waste. d) Identifying unknown chemicals. ANSWER: a) Removing or neutralizing contaminants that have accumulated on personnel and equipment. 20. The primary goal of decontamination is to: a) Make equipment look new. b) Prevent the spread of contaminants beyond the work zone and protect workers. c) Reduce the cost of waste disposal. d) Fulfill an EPA requirement. ANSWER: b) Prevent the spread of contaminants beyond the work zone and protect workers. 21. The Emergency Response Plan must include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Pre-emergency planning and personnel roles. b) Lines of authority, training, and communication. c) The company's annual budget. d) Emergency recognition and prevention, safe distances, and places of refuge. ANSWER: c) The company's annual budget. 22. The "Warm Zone" at an emergency response site is also known as the: a) Exclusion Zone b) Contamination Reduction Zone (CRZ) c) Support Zone d) Public Area ANSWER: b) Contamination Reduction Zone (CRZ)