WGU PATHOPHYSIOLOGY D236 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS

WGU PATHOPHYSIOLOGY D236 EXAM QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS BEST RATED A+ GUARANTEED SUCCESS “What is Starling's Law of Capillary forces? How does this explain why a nutritionally deficient child would have edema? - CORRECT ANSWER Starling's Law describes how fluids move across the capillary membrane. There are two major opposing forces that act to balance each other, hydrostatic pressure (pushing water out of the capillaries) and osmotic pressure (including oncontic pressure, which pushes fluid into the capillaries). Both electrolytes and proteins (oncontic pressure) in the blood affect osmotic pressure, high electrolyte and protein concentrations in the blood would cause water to leave the cells and interstitial space and enter the blood stream to dilute the high concentrations. On, the other hand, low electrolyte and protein concentrations (as seen in a nutritionally deficient child) would cause water to leave the capillaries and enter the cells and interstitial fluid which can lead to edema." "Compare and contrast Type I and Type II Diabetes - CORRECT ANSWER Type I diabetes is caused by lack of insulin. With out insulin signaling, glucose will not be taken into the cell and leads to high blood glucose (hyperglycemia). Type I is usually treated with insulin injections. Type II diabetes is caused by a desensitization to insulin signaling. The insulin receptors are no longer responding to insulin, which also leads to hyperglycemia. Type II is usually treated with drugs to increase the sensitization to insulin (metformin), dietary and life-style changes or insulin injections." "Differentiate between Innate Immunity and Adaptive Immunity ? - CORRECT ANSWER The innate immune system encompasses physical barriers and chemical and cellular defenses. Physical barriers protect the body from invasion. These include things like the skin and eyelashes. Chemical barriers are defense mechanisms that can destroy harmful agent. Examples include tears, mucous, and stomach acid. Cellular defenses of the innate immune response are non-specific. These cellular defenses identify pathogens and substances that are potentially dangerous and takes steps to neutralize or destroy them. Adaptive immunity is an organism's acquired immunity to a specific pathogen. As such, it's also referred to as acquired immunity. Adaptive immunity is not immediate, nor does it always last throughout an organism's entire lifespan, although it can. The adaptive immune response is marked by clonal expansion of T and B lymphocytes, releasing many antibody copies to neutralize or destroy their target antigen" "Why are some infections harder on children while other infections are harder on the elderly? - CORRECT ANSWER Children have not been exposed to many pathogens yet, so they lack memory cells and have not built-up immunity yet. The elderly have a depleted naïve T cell population from years of battling infections, so the likelihood of getting a match is less." "Describe how and why our injury response results in the signs of redness, swelling, heat, and pain? (Be sure to use chemokines, histamine, and vasodilation in your response.) - CORRECT ANSWER An injury causes an inflammatory response which is responsible for the redness, swelling, heat and pain. Upon injury, cells on the surface begin to release chemokines which act as messengers that something has happened. Mast cells are also alerted to release histamines which travel to the endothelial cells of capillaries and causes vasodilation, which is related to swelling and redness. Vasodilation also causes the capillaries to become leaky which allows for histamines, chemokines and even pathogen particles to enter the blood stream where they are met by neutrophils (non-specific) which start to adhere to the capillary wall and squeeze through the leaky holes (diapedesis or extravasation) to phagocytose pathogens and damaged cells. Dendritic cells just under the surface of skin are also activated to phagocytose foreign particles. Other B cells, T cells (specific) and the complement system also squeeze through the capillary wall to create an area of congestion." "What is Spina Bifida? Why are relative deficiencies in Folic acid or B12 associated with Spina Bifida? - CORRECT ANSWER Failure to close the neural tube early in gestation due to low folic acid and B-12. These vitamins help activate DNA synthesis in the developing fetus in the first 4 weeks of pregnancy, that are responsible for closing up the spinal column. Three types of spina bifida. 1) spina bifida occulta (most common, less severe) 2) Meningocele (least common) 3) Myelomeningocele (most severe)." "Essential Question: How does the body's cellular responses and adaptations react to disruptions? - CORRECT ANSWER The body uses the RAAS system to regulate blood volume and pressure, the immune response reacts to fight infection, the inflammatory response reacts to injury" "Describe how calcitonin, parathyroid hormone, and calcitriol (Vitamin D) work together to maintain normal blood calcium levels. - CORRECT ANSWER Vitamin D: UV light stimulates formation of vit d by liver and the kidney into the active form of calcitriol. Calcitriol absorption of calcium and phosphorus from the GI tract and kidney and began to build up bone by raising calcium and phosphorus levels. Low vitamin D levels can cause hypocalcemia, which stimulates the release of parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH stimulates osteoclasts to increase blood calcium levels. PTH also stimulates osteoblasts to form bone. PTH stimulates kidneys to reabsorb calcium into the blood and to produce vitamin D. When blood calcium gets too high, the thyroid is stimulated to release calcitonin" "Describe the function of osteocytes within lacunae of bone - CORRECT ANSWER Osteocytes absorb nutrients from the bloodstream and put it in the bone. Osteocytes absorb waste products from the bone and put them in the bloodstream" "Describe bone remodeling ? Which cells are involved in this process and what is their function? - CORRECT ANSWER Osteoclasts breakdown older bone structure and release calcium into the bloodstream. Osteoblasts absorb calcium from the bloodstream and use it to build new bone structure. Working together, these two cell types allow for regeneration of damaged bone structur" "Describe the process of articular degeneration. Which cells are involved in this process and what is their function? - CORRECT ANSWER Articular Degeneration is the thinning and breakdown of the articular cartilage that covers joints and acts as a lubricant and cushion. it has chondrocytes which produce enzymes and other proteins that break down and reform slowly being overweight or physical trauma can cause chondrocytes to speed up the breakdown process leading to a thinning of the articular cartilage." "What is rickets? Who usually develops rickets? How can rickets be treated? - CORRECT ANSWER Rickets is a deficiency of vitamin D (due to sunlight exposure), it leads to a deficiency of calcium. Rickets can lead to bone weakness, deformity, and fractures. Children, especially under age 2 The best way to treat rickets is to prevent it by taking supplements of vitamin D and calcium, eating food/drink containing vitamin D/calcium, and getting sufficient sunlight. Physical therapy with weight-bearing exercise can help to treat rickets, as well. It is a multi step process to make the active form of Vit D" "How does Denosumab treat osteoporosis? - CORRECT ANSWER Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody that binds to osteoclasts and inhibits the withdrawing of calcium" "Distinguish between open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) and hip replacement surgery. - CORRECT ANSWER Open reduction and internal fixation involves "surgical opening' and insertion of hardware into the patient that assists with maintaining proper bone alignment during the healing process. Hip replacement involves replacement of a fractured hip joint with a prosthesis." "Describe Eczema and Contact Dermatitis. How can these conditions be mitigated? - CORRECT ANSWER Eczema is a disorder involving the immune system that leads to crusty, itchy, reddened skin. Eczema can be induced by stress,food, temp Observation Contact dermatitis is an allergic reaction that is localized at the area of contact that leads to redness and swelling. avoidance of exposure will mitigate the symptoms." "Describe Urticaria and associated Angioedema. What potentially life- threatening scenario can be associated with these conditions? - CORRECT ANSWER Urticaria is the formation of red, blotchy, itchy patches (also called hives) associated with a large release of histamines. Angioedema is the swelling of the eyes, face, lips, and mucous membranes that is often associated with urticaria. Anaphylactic shock is often associated with these conditions." "Describe the three most common types of skin cancer. Where in the skin does each occur, and what are risk factors for each? Which are most likely to metastasize? How are skin cancers diagnosed, and what are treatment options? - CORRECT ANSWER The most common type of skin cancer is basal cell carcinoma. Basal cell carcinoma is a cancer of the basal cells and is most commonly located on the face. its shiny, pearly bump. Basal cell carcinoma is usually treated by excision and rarely metastasizes. Squamous cell carcinoma is a cancer of the squamous cells that appears as a red, crusted, or scaly ulcer or bump. Squamous cell carcinoma rarely metastasizes (but can do so through the lymphatic system) and is treated by excision. Melanoma is a cancer of the melanocytes that appears as an irregularly-shaped patch of skin with unusual pigmentation. The coloration of the melanoma is often dark but can appear as other colors such bright-pink or blue. Melanoma has a very high risk of penetrating into blood vessels and the lymphatic system, and early detection and excision can prevent metastasis. Skin cancers are diagnosed through biopsy of the suspected area of skin" "What are potential complications of Albinism? How can these complications be treated or mitigated? - CORRECT ANSWER Complications of albinism include skin cancer and visual problems." "What are potential complications of burns? How would you prevent or lessen these complications? - CORRECT ANSWER infection, hypermetabolism,respiratory distress syndrome can be caused by damaged lungs and large burn areas, and care should be taken to prevent swelling from blocking airflow, compartment syndrome and said tissue should be excised to prevent loss of blood flow and nerve signals." "Why is it so important to have a patient with a suspected CVA to get a CT scan as soon as possible? Explain while describing treatment options. - CORRECT ANSWER Because the treatment needs to begin asap. For ischemic CVA, thrombolytic therapy can begin within 60 minutes with a goal of beginning within 3.5-4 hrs from event. Hemorrhagic CVA treatment needs to create a blood clot asap to stop internal bleeding." "How does malignant hypertension differ from benign hypertension? Name a few target organs that can be damaged. Is hypertension ever considered truly benign? Explain why or why not. - CORRECT ANSWER Malignant hypertension is high blood pressure that has resulted in multiple complications. While benign hypertension is high blood pressure without evidence of end target organ damage." "What are the four main functions of the Lymphatic System? - CORRECT ANSWER Lymphatic system can be thought of the highway system. The main functions are to protect the body from foreign invaders, maintain the body fluid levels, remove cellular waste." "Name 5 of the 10 main parts of the Lymphatic System - CORRECT ANSWER • Lymph: • Lymph nodes: • Lymphatic vessels • Collecting ducts: • Spleen: • Thymus: • Tonsils and adenoid: • Bone marrow: . • Peyer's patches: • Appendix" "What is Lymph? - CORRECT ANSWER fluid that contains proteins, minerals, fats, nutrients, damaged cells, cancer cells and foreign invaders such as bacteria, viruses etc. Lymph transports infection-fighting WBCs." "What are Lymph Nodes? - CORRECT ANSWER glands that monitor and cleanse the lymph during their filtration process they filter out damage cells and cancer cells" "What is the purpose of the Spleen? - CORRECT ANSWER It is the largest lymphatic organ. filters and stores blood and produces the WBC to fight infection and diseases." "What is the purpose of the Tonsils and Adenoid? - CORRECT ANSWER trap pathogens" "What are Peyer's Patches? - CORRECT ANSWER These are small masses of lymphatic tissues in the small intestine. they monitor and destroy bacteria in the intestines." "What is the difference between Hodgkin's Lymphoma and Non Hodgkin's Lymphoma? - CORRECT ANSWER These are two types of cancer of the lymphatic system that can Hodgkin's lymphoma where you see the presence of abnormal cell called the Reed-Sternberg cell. Whereas the non-Hodgkin's lymphoma where these abnormal cells are absent." "Epiglottitis is serious condition with a significant risk of mortality. Elaborate on why this is the case. - CORRECT ANSWER Epiglottitis is the infection and inflammation of the epiglottis-which is the flap of tissue that sits atop the trachea to keep food from going down. When inflamed, the epiglottis can obstruct the trachea. There is a possiility for the sudden closing of the airway which can lead to death." "Which of the following is NOT an Upper Respiratory Infection (URI)? A. Rhinitis B. Laryngitis C. Pneumonia D. Tracheitis E. Sinusitis - CORRECT ANSWER Pneumonia" "Overdistention of alveoli resulting in the ability to remove CO2 is called? A. Bronchitis B. Emphysema C.Asthma D. Pulmonary Embolism - CORRECT ANSWER Emphysema" "What is the most common type of kidney cancer and what are some common causes and risk factors? - CORRECT ANSWER The most common form of kidney cancer is renal cell carcinoma. Common causes and risks include smoking, long term use of pain medications, obesity, high blood pressure, family history of renal cancer and heredity diseases such as Von Hippel-Lindau disease and hereditary papillary renal cell carcinoma.," "What are the common conditions that are risk factors to developing Chronic Renal Failure? Why do the initial stages of CRF have few problems that manifest in patients? At which stage does End Stage Renal Disease begin? - CORRECT ANSWER Diabetes, hypertension, glomerulonephritis, and PKD. As many as 75% of nephrons are healthy during initial stages and can compensate 5" "Explain how treatment of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS) with rehydration and insulin can cause serum hypokalemia. - CORRECT ANSWER HHS is a result of intracellular fluid escaping into the bloodstream in response to high blood glucose levels. Intracellular potassium will follow the fluid such that blood serum levels of K+ will appear normal or even high. Once treatment begins and fluids return to intracellular compartments, K+ will leave the bloodstream creating a hypokalemic response." "Female reproductive cancers include breast cancer, ovarian cancer, and cervical cancer. What are the most common causes of each of these types of cancer? - CORRECT ANSWER Breast cancer - prolonged estrogen exposure Ovarian cancer - genetic causes Cervical cancer - HPV infection" "Compare and contrast obstructive vs non-obstructive causes of male infertility. Provide examples of each, including their causes. - CORRECT ANSWER Obstructive: infections, vasectomy, swelling, blockage. Non-obstructive: deficiencies in sperm production or function." "What is the main treatment for prostate cancer, including some side effects of the treatment? - CORRECT ANSWER Prostate cancer feeds on testosterone, so chemically blocking testosterone is the main treatment." "What is Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)? - CORRECT ANSWER Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is an infection of the female reproductive organs. It most often occurs when sexually transmitted bacteria spread from your vagina" "What are the signs and symptoms of PID? - CORRECT ANSWER Pain — ranging from mild to severe — in your lower abdomen and pelvis Abnormal or heavy vaginal discharge that may have an unpleasant odor Abnormal uterine bleeding, especially during or after intercourse, or between menstrual cycles Pain during intercourse Fever, sometimes with chills Painful, frequent or difficult urination" "Rule of 9's - CORRECT ANSWER Head and neck = 9% Upper Ex = 9% each Lower Ex = 9% each Front trunk = 18% Back trunk = 18%" "what could happen following meniere disease - CORRECT ANSWER hearing loss" "Meniere's disease - CORRECT ANSWER disorder of inner ear causing vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss" "inward curvature of the lower spine - CORRECT ANSWER lordosis" "Lyme disease - CORRECT ANSWER bacteria" "when ph is decreased what happens to respirations - CORRECT ANSWER it increases" "what happen when ph is increased what happens to respirations - CORRECT ANSWER it decreases" "What is an infarct? How does a thrombus or embolus cause infarction? - CORRECT ANSWER dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply. It get stucks in the artery blocking blood flow." "Distinguish between ischemic cerebrovascular accident and hemorrhagic cvs - CORRECT ANSWER Ischemic is a blockage of blood flow. The other is when a vessel rupture and bleeds out." "How is a TIA different from a stroke? - CORRECT ANSWER -Its a temporary block that self-resolves within 24 hrs -No permanent damage -See immediate medical attention, can be a warning for a future full stroke" "what are the two major parts of the nervous system - CORRECT ANSWER central and peripheral" "which directions do motor neuron signals travel? sensory neurons? - CORRECT ANSWER upper is in the cerebral cortex and travel down brain stem and spinal cord. Sensory bran spinal cord." "describe one motor one sensory and one autonomic symptom of peripheral neuropathy - CORRECT ANSWER motor is weakness paralysis , sensory tingling and prickling, autonomic dizziness, and peripheral stabbing and burning" "type 2 diabetes how does it cause neuropathy - CORRECT ANSWER high glucose damage blood vessels that supply nerves" "vitamin d how does it cause neuropathy - CORRECT ANSWER causes low levels of neurotropin which regulate neuron functions" "how does alcohol use cause neuropathy - CORRECT ANSWER causes damage to the nerves" "how does cancer cause neuropathy - CORRECT ANSWER presses on the nerves causing damage" "how does toxins cause neuropathy - CORRECT ANSWER causes the axons to degenerate" "what is idiopathic neuropathy - CORRECT ANSWER neuropathy with no leading cause" "layers of the brain in order - CORRECT ANSWER inner is pia mater, middle is arachnoid matter, then dura mater" "epidural hematoma, causes symptom, tx - CORRECT ANSWER a hematoma located on top of the dura, skull fx tears a vessel, same as others, craniotomy" "subdural hematoma causes, symptom, tx - CORRECT ANSWER collection of blood under the dura mater, head injury, h/a confusin drowsiness vomiting slurred speach vision changes, surgery drain blood" "subarachnoid pia mater hematoma, causes, symptom, tx - CORRECT ANSWER between pia and dura mater, cerbral anuerism, h/a visual disturbance face pain, surgery" "Glascow Coma Scale purpose - CORRECT ANSWER describe the extent of impaired consciousness" "glascow coma scale reliability - CORRECT ANSWER reliable" "which 3 indices of responsiveness are considered for the gcs - CORRECT ANSWER eye-opening, motor, and verbal responses" "chorea is present in what disease, involves moto neurons but not sensory neurons - CORRECT ANSWER huntingtons disease" "what disease can cause tingling, vision, fatigue, weakness and numbness - CORRECT ANSWER ms" "Guillian-Barre S/S - CORRECT ANSWER symmetrical muscle weakness, and fluctuating tachycardia and bradycardia" "Parkinson's disease symptom - CORRECT ANSWER -bradykinesia (slowness in movement)" "symptom of myasthenia gravis - CORRECT ANSWER ocular form eyelid and extraocular muscle weaknesss" "what is still intact with als - CORRECT ANSWER sensation" "excessive growth of epithelium on eye lens - CORRECT ANSWER cataracts" "Retinopathy symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER cottons spots, can happen before diabetes diagnoses, increase weak vessels" "macular degeneration facts - CORRECT ANSWER decrease in removal of cellar debris, occurs in wet or dry forms dry are common, decrease of center vision causes cloudy blurred vision" "Glaucoma facts - CORRECT ANSWER increased intraocular pressure (IOP), slow and progressive or sudden, caused obstruction of ocular fluid drainage" "B lymphocytes - CORRECT ANSWER produce antibodies" "T lymphocytes - CORRECT ANSWER form in the thymus and other lymphatic tissue and attack cancer cells, viruses, and foreign substances" "how does a person gain immunity through exposure to an antigen - CORRECT ANSWER b cell recognize the invader and produce antibodies" "vaccination provide immunity - CORRECT ANSWER it introduces an antigen that that helps the body produce antibodies" "phagocyte - CORRECT ANSWER wbc that engulfs pathogens" "dendritic cells - CORRECT ANSWER specialized white blood cells that patrol the body searching for antigens that produce infections" "mast cells - CORRECT ANSWER release histamine" "Helper T cells - CORRECT ANSWER Activate macrophages, B cells and T cells." "Chemokines - CORRECT ANSWER induce migration of leukocytes" "capillary endothelial cells - CORRECT ANSWER exchange substances between blood and hepatocytes" "Histamine - CORRECT ANSWER Chemical stored in mast cells that triggers dilation and increased permeability of capillaries." "Neutrophils - CORRECT ANSWER A type of white blood cell that engulfs invading microbes" "complement proteins - CORRECT ANSWER proteins in blood that help destroy pathogens by coating or puncturing them" "Exudate - CORRECT ANSWER fluid, such as pus, that leaks out of an infected wound" "gene expression process - CORRECT ANSWER DNA-transcription of info in gene-RNA-translation-protein" "chromosome structure - CORRECT ANSWER 2 sister chromatids attached by a centromere; identical DNA" "DNA mutations - CORRECT ANSWER Changes to genes due to changes in nucleotide base sequences." "Transcription of DNA - CORRECT ANSWER results in formation of of RNA" "Translation of DNA - CORRECT ANSWER Process of assembling amino acids into proteins from the information coded in RNA" "how many chromosomes of need to be in an ovum and one sperm to create the first cell of an embryo - CORRECT ANSWER 23" "genes vs alleles - CORRECT ANSWER Genes code for a trait; alleles are variants of the trait" "humans have two alleys for each type of Gene how - CORRECT ANSWER one from each parent" "Polydactyly - CORRECT ANSWER extra fingers or toes" "is polydactyl a dominant or recessive trait how do we know - CORRECT ANSWER polydactyly are dominant traits. This means that if one biological parent carries the genetic code for it, their babies have a 50% chance of being born with polydactyly" "distinguish between penetrance and variable expressions of a genetic trait - CORRECT ANSWER Penetrance clinical characteristic. Variable expressivity refers to the series of signs and symptoms that can occur in different people with the same genetic condition" "describe the congenital heart problems common with Down Syndrome - CORRECT ANSWER atrioventricular septal defect (AVSD) holes between the right and left sides of the heart, and the valves that control the blood flow between the two sides may not be formed correctly." "what are the two changes that have been observed in the brain of those exposed to prenatal alcohol - CORRECT ANSWER smaller cerebral surface area and cortical thickness" "when does myelomeningocele occur - CORRECT ANSWER first 28 days of pregnancy" "what is another name for folate - CORRECT ANSWER b9" "upper respiratory infections - CORRECT ANSWER acute sinunitis, acture tonsilitits epiglittis" "lower respiratory infections - CORRECT ANSWER tuberculosis and pneumonia" "structures of the upper respiratory tract - CORRECT ANSWER nose pharnyx larynx" "why does aspiration occur in the right lung - CORRECT ANSWER because the right lung is larger" "how does the exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen occur - CORRECT ANSWER blood gives off carbon dioxideoxygen from air in the alveoli" "with a person with a temperature have a high O2 sat or low - CORRECT ANSWER low" "cough - CORRECT ANSWER involuntary response to clear the bronchial tree" "gray sputum - CORRECT ANSWER smoking" "red sputum - CORRECT ANSWER TB, infarct, cancer" "Rusty sputum - CORRECT ANSWER Strep pneumoniae pneumonia" "Yellow or green sputum - CORRECT ANSWER bacterial infection" "how does the body compensate chronic hypoxia - CORRECT ANSWER tachycardia" "pleural effusion - CORRECT ANSWER fluid in the pleural space" "why are lymph nodes involved with inflammatory process - CORRECT ANSWER lymph nodes quickly initiate protective adaptive immunity to produce antibody, cytotoxic cells and memory against pathogens" "endemic - CORRECT ANSWER confined to a particular country or area" "responsible for strep and staph - CORRECT ANSWER Streptococcus pyogenes" "How does the capsule of Streptococcus pyogenes help the microbe infection? - CORRECT ANSWER helps with adhesion" "why is antibiotic resistance streptococcus areas is concerning - CORRECT ANSWER promote persistent infection," "the vectors and reservoirs of Lyme disease - CORRECT ANSWER The white-footed mouse is the reservoir for the infection, and the tick is the vector." "Lyme disease symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER Bull's-eye rash; neurologic symptoms" "lyme disease bacteria - CORRECT ANSWER Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi" "Where are immune complex precipitates formed? - CORRECT ANSWER skin, joints, vessels, or glomeruli" "Xanthoma - CORRECT ANSWER yellow tumor (benign, primarily in the skin)" "effects of hypertension on the cardiovascular system - CORRECT ANSWER decreases the flow of blood and oxygen to your heartless less elastic arteries" "why can left ventricular hypertrophy occur with hypertension - CORRECT ANSWER Long-term high blood pressure strains the left side of the heart, causing it to grow bigger" "what is left ventricular hypertrophy dangerous - CORRECT ANSWER significant risk of developing myocardial ischemia and infarction, heart failure, dysrhythmias, or even sudden death." "why can't hemolytic anemia and thalassemia cause dark urine - CORRECT ANSWER bilirubin from broken down red blood cells." "how does raas system compensate for blood loss - CORRECT ANSWER increase water and electrolyte reabsorption in the kidney" "two type of anemia are hemoglobin disorders - CORRECT ANSWER sickle cell disease and thalassemia." "how are foam sells helpful to the arteries and bad - CORRECT ANSWER increase monocyte recruitment and degradation can cause plaque rupture" "Endocarditis - signs and symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER fever, fatigue, malaise, tachycardia" "Pericarditis symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER friction rub" "angina signs - CORRECT ANSWER - pale, sweaty, anxious - chest pain, chest tightness" "How does the RAAS (Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System) result in increased blood volume and increased blood pressure? - CORRECT ANSWER A drop in blood pressure is sensed by the kidneys triggers prodcution of renin Renin triggers the liver to produce angiotensinogen, and converts it into Angiotensin I and angiotensin II by the enzyme Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II stimulates peripheral arterial vasoconstriction which raises BP. Angiotensin II stimulate the adrenal gland to release aldosterone, which acts to increase sodium and water absorption increasing blood volume, while also increased potassium secretion in urine." "How can hyperkalemia lead to cardiac arrest? - CORRECT ANSWER Normal levels of potassium are between 3.5 and 5.2 mEq/dL. Hyperkalemia refers to potassium levels higher that 5.2 mEq/dL. A major function of potassium is to conduct nerve impulses in muscles. Too low causes muscle weakness too much can cause muscle spasms. This is especially dangerous in the heart muscle and an irregular heartbeat can cause a heart attack" "The body uses the Protein Buffering System, Phosphate Buffering System, and Carbonic Acid-Bicarbonate System to regulate and maintain homeostatic pH, what is the consequence of a pH imbalance - CORRECT ANSWER Any increase or decrease in blood pH can alter the structure of the protein (denature), thereby affecting its function as well" "Describe the laboratory findings associated with metabolic acidosis, metabolic alkalosis, respiratory acidosis and respiratory alkalosis. (ie relative pH and CO2 levels). - CORRECT ANSWER Normal ABGs (Arterial Blood Gases) Blood pH: 7.35-7.45 PCO2: 35-45 mm Hg PO2: 90-100 mm Hg HCO3-: 22-26 mEq/L SaO2: 95-100% Metabolic acidosis ph less than 7.35 and low HC03. Metabolic alkolosis ph greater than 7.35 and so is hco3 both of these can be caused my dka. if the ph and pco2 levels are going in the same direction it is metabolic if they are going in a different direction it is respiratory Respiratory alkolosis ph greater than 7.35and pco2 is decreased. repsiratory acidosis is ph less than 7.35 and pco2 greater than" "The anion gap is the difference between measured cations (Na+ and K+) and measured anions (Cl- and HCO3-), this calculation can be useful in determining the cause of metabolic acidosis. Why would an increased anion gap be observed in diabetic ketoacidosis or lactic acidosis? - CORRECT ANSWER The anion gap is the calculation of unmeasured anions in the blood. Lactic acid and ketones lead to the production of unmeasured anions, therefore leads to an increase in the AG." "Why is it important to maintain a homeostatic balance of glucose in the blood (ie describe the pathogenesis of diabetes)? - CORRECT ANSWER Insulin is the hormone responsible for initiating the uptake of glucose by the cells. Cells use glucose to produce energy (ATP). In a normal individual, when blood glucose increases, the pancreas is signaled to produced in insulin, which binds to insulin receptors on a cells surface and initiates the uptake of glucose. Glucose if left in the blood, can to bind to proteins and lipids, which can lead to loss of function. leading to damage in the heart and kidneys." "Describe some reasons for a patient needing dialysis - CORRECT ANSWER AEIOU-acidosis. Electrolytes, Intoxication/Ingestion, overload, uremia. Patients with kidney or heart failure. A build up of phosphates, urea and magnesium are removed from the blood using a semi-permeable membrane and dialysate. AEIOU: A—acidosis; E—electrolytes principally hyperkalemia; I—ingestions or overdose of medications/drugs; O—overload of fluid causing heart failure; U—uremia leading to encephalitis/pericarditis" "Compare and contrast hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis. What are some reasons for a patient choosing one over the other? - CORRECT ANSWER Hemodialysis uses a machine to pump blood from the body in one tube while dialysate (made of water, electrolytes and salts) is pumped in the separate tube in the opposite direction. Waste from the blood diffuses through the semipermeable membrane separating the blood from the dialysate. Peritoneal Dialysis does not use a machine, but instead injects a solution of water and glucose into the abdominal cavity. The peritoneum acts as the membrane instead of dialysis tubing. The waste products diffuse into the abdominal cavity and the waste solution is then drained from the body. Peritoneal dialysis offers continuous filtration and is less disruption to the patient's daily routines. However, it does require some training of the patient and is not recommended for individuals who are overweight or have severe kidney failure. Hemodialysis provides medical care, but 3 times a week for several hours sitting at a hospital or clinic. Individuals with acute kidney failure are recommended to use hemodialysis." "How does homeostasis and maintaining optimal physiological health impact your wellbeing? - CORRECT ANSWER Homeostasis acts to create a constant and stable environment in the body despite internal and external changes. Proteins and other cellular processes require optimal conditions in order to carry out their functions. Alterations in pH, salt concentration, temperature, glucose levels, etc. can have negative effects on health, so it is vital for mechanisms that regulate homeostasis to function properly for maintaining good health" "Explain dominant vs recessive genetic diseases. What is a "carrier" in recessive genetic diseases? - CORRECT ANSWER The human genome contains 23 pairs of chromosome (22 autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes). The pairs are homologous and contain the same genes in the same order. This means that every gene has a copy, one inherited from your mother and the other from your father. Not all versions of a gene (alleles) are treated the same by the cell. Some are expressed over others. A dominant gene is a gene that is expressed, even if you only have one copy. The dominant gene will be expressed over the recessive gene, which must have two copies to be expressed. In a dominant genetic disease, all it takes is one copy of the disease to have the disease. Recessive genetic diseases require that the individual gets two copies of the gene to have the disease. Someone who is a carrier for a recessive genetic disease is healthy, but contains a copy of the disease gene, potentially passing it to their offspring." "Describe how to determine the probability of clinical outcomes given information about the parents (eg two heterozygous carriers of sickle cell disease). - CORRECT ANSWER Punnett Squares can be used to determine the potential probabilities of certain traits being passed to offspring. If you know the genotypes of each parent (ie homozygous or heterozygous for the trait), you can determine the possible outcomes. Heterozygous means that the parent has one copy of each gene, homozygous means the parent has the same copy for each gene (either both dominant genes or both recessive genes)." "What are some of the consequences of alcohol exposure in pregnancy? - CORRECT ANSWER ND-PAE (neurobehavioral disorder-prenatal alcohol exposure) can cause birth defects and developmental disabilities (fetal alcohol spectrum disorders-FASDs). Affects thinking and memory, causes behavioral issues and linked to trouble with everyday functioning" "What are some of the distinctive features associated with trisomy 21, or Down's Syndrome? Why is increased maternal age a risk factor? - CORRECT ANSWER Distinct features of Down's syndrome include intellectual disabilities and common physical features that include slanted eyes, flattened bridge of the nose and forehead, short in stature, poor muscle tone, loose joints and single palmar crease. As a woman's eggs age, they can have mistakes in meiosis potentially leading to a nondisjunction event causing trisomy 21" "What is degenerative disc disease? What are some of the anatomical features of degenerative disc disease? What are some symptoms of lumbar vs. cervical degenerative disc disease? - CORRECT ANSWER Degenerative disc disease (DDD) is a disorder of the discs deteriorating, this cause improper alignment of the spine, thinning discs, herniated disc, bulging discs, and degenerated discs (possible with the formation of osteophytes). Lumbar DDD results in pain in the buttock and thighs; weakness and numbness in the lower body Cervical DDD can result in chronic neck pain that radiates to shoulders and down the arms, weakness of arms/hands, and numbness and tingling in arms/hands." "What is sepsis ? What are symptoms of sepsis, and how can sepsis be treated? - CORRECT ANSWER Sepsis is an infection of the blood. Fever, chills, and warm, edematous, and erythematous. If the infection is advanced, a purulent (pus-like) discharge can develop, as well as a foul odor. The patient is treated with IV antibiotics in the hospital. When they are allowed to go home, they are given oral antibiotics. In the context of musculoskeletal injury, as part of treatment, the debridement of the wound and removal of orthopedic hardware will be needed to clean up infected region around injury, if it exists." "What is the most sensitive laboratory test for rhabdomyolosis and complication? - CORRECT ANSWER renal toxicity and tea-colored urine, which is, typically, a patient's first indication that they have rhabdomyolysis. The most sensitive laboratory test is an elevated creatine" "Describe Albinism ? What portions of the body are negatively affected by Albinism? - CORRECT ANSWER Albinism is a genetic disorder in which the body does not produce melanin. Lack of melanin negatively impacts the skin and eyes: The skin of albinos is easily sunburned and these individuals are prone to skin cancers. The eyes of albinos are sensitive to and easily damaged by sunlight and albinos frequently have issues with vision." "For each of the three types of nerves (sensory, motor and autonomic), describe 1-2 symptoms of neuropathy. - CORRECT ANSWER Sensory nerves cause numbness, tingling. Motor nerves cause overall weakness, difficulty walking. Autonomic nerves cause GI issues, lightheadedness." "Patients with neuropathy often have poor balance that worsens in the dark or when their eyes are closed. Explain 2-3 ways in which neuropathy causes this reduced balance. - CORRECT ANSWER Neuropathy causes reduced balance by causing numbness in sensory nerves, by causing lack of feeling in feet and weakness in ankles by affecting motor nerves, and by causing lightheadedness by affecting autonomic nerves" "als patho and symptoms - CORRECT ANSWER The pathophysiology of ALS is that upper lower motor neurons become sclerotic and die. Symptoms of ALS include weakness in upper and lower extremities, head drop, speech changes, dysphagia" "Retinal detachment is a serious complication of diabetic retionopathy and AMD. Describe how retinal detachment leads to vision loss. - CORRECT ANSWER In retinal detachment, the inner layers of the retina break away from retinal epithelial cells and the choroid layer, leading to ischemia of the retina and loss of vision." "Compare and contrast otitus media and Meniere's disease. In the discussion, include the part of the ear affected, the symptoms, general age of people affected, and treatment strategies. - CORRECT ANSWER Otitis media occurs most commonly in children, it affects the middle ear space, causes earache, fever, hearing loss, and can be treated by antibiotics. Meniere's disease most commonly occurs in individuals 40-50 years old, it affects the inner ear, causes hearing loss, tinnitus, vertigo, and can be treated by low-salt diet, diuretics, and anti-inflammatory meds." "Describe two contributing factor to developing an aneurysm - CORRECT ANSWER An aneurysm is a weakening of an artery wall that results in bulging or dilation of the artery. Aneurysms can be caused by arteriosclerosis, degenerative vascular disease, and other causes. They are most prevalent in males over 60 and African Americans." "angina symptoms be felt in and list any unique presentations of angina - CORRECT ANSWER Angina is classically defined as squeezing chest pain as a result of Acute Coronary Syndrome, but some people, especially women, experience angina equivalents, such as dyspnea, diaphoresis, feeling faint, dizziness, extreme fatigue, or heartburn." "Name two biomarkers that can be used to confirm a myocardial infaction occured and what types of molecules are they? - CORRECT ANSWER Two diagnostic markers of myocardial infarction are creatine phosphokinas MB and cardiac troponin. These are proteins found in heart muscle that are released into the bloodstream when the heart is damaged" "Of the types of dysrythmia presented, which can lead to death within 48hrs and explain why this can result in death? - CORRECT ANSWER Ventricular fibrillation can lead to death in 48 hours if not treated. Instead of pumping properly, the heart rhythm degenerates into a quivering of the ventricle, resulting in lack of blood flow." "Does left ventricular failure (LVF) exhibit backward effects, forward effects, or both? Briefly explain what happens - CORRECT ANSWER This causes backwards effects, in that hydrostatic pressure builds up in the left atrium, pulmonary veins, and pulmonary capillaries. The build up of pressure causes pulmonary edema. LVF causes forward effects in that the decrease of systemic arterial pressure leads to a sense of low blood pressure, decrease circulation to the kidneys, and decreased circulation to the brain" "Name the two types of heart murmurs and briefly describe characteristics of each. Dysfunctional heart valves can be stenotic or regurgitant. What do these terms mean? - CORRECT ANSWER A stenotic heart valve is narrowed so it doesn't allow blood to flow freely across it, while a regurgitant valve does not close properly, which allows leakage of blood across it." "The Space between the lung and membrane is called? A. Bronchioles B. Alveoli C. Larynx D. Pleural Cavity - CORRECT ANSWER Pleural Cavity" "Pleural effusion caused by increased hydrostatic pressure is called what? A. Exudative B. Pheumonic C. Transudative D. Oxidative - CORRECT ANSWER Transudative" "Name at least two pulmonary vasculature related disorders and the main distinguishing characteristics of each disorder you chose. - CORRECT ANSWER Pulmonary edema is the fluid around the alveoli Pulmonary embolism is a clot that causes obstruction of the arterial blood flow through the lungs." "An imbalance of secretions can lead to GI issues. Which of these blocks the function of parietal cells? A. Gastrin B. Endoscopy C. Histamine D. PPIs (Proton Pump Inhibitors) - CORRECT ANSWER Histamine" "This disease is caused by pathological changes in the wall of the colon and predisposes to colon cancer. A. Esophageal varices B. Dyspepsia C. Crohn's disease D. Ulcerative Colitis - CORRECT ANSWER Ulcerative Colitis" "What is cirrhosis and how does it develop? What are four potential detrimental effects that can result from cirrhosis? How does each of these affect a patient systemically? - CORRECT ANSWER Hepatitis and chronic alcohol Cirrhosis can lead to esophageal Varices, • Inability to detoxify compounds in blood - increased toxin exposure • Decreased bile - decreased lipid digestion and absorption • Hyperbilirubinemia - jaundice • Bleeding resulting from portal hypertension • Decreased synthesis of clotting factors - excessive bleeding • Hepatic encephalopathy - confusion, impaired cognition" "What is cholestasis? What are the two types of cholestasis and how do they differ? - CORRECT ANSWER Cholestasis is the significant reduction of bile secretion and flow. Intrahepatic cholestasis is the result of diseased hepatocytes or disease of intrahepatic bile ducts. Extrahepatic cholestasis is the result of a duct obstruction outside of the liver" "What is biliary sludge and how does its presence lead to the development of gallstones? - CORRECT ANSWER Biliary sludge is the result of bile stasis. The components of bile become very concentrated in the gallbladder resulting in an increased likelihood of gallstones" "How can choledocholithiasis lead to acute pancreatitis? Why would this result in damage to pancreatic cells? - CORRECT ANSWER Choledocholithiasis occurs when bile flow is obstructed by a gallstone in the common bile duct. This can lead to a backup of digestive enzymes from the pancreas that damage pancreatic cells." "Urolithiasis is a term used to describe stones (calculi) that form in the urinary system. What are the three different types and what part of the urinary system do these occur? What factors might be responsible for calculi forming and what are the possible ramifications if a stone cannot be passed in the urine? - CORRECT ANSWER Urolithiasis are calculi that form in the urinary system, nephrolithiasis (kidney), ureterolithiasis (ureter), cystolithiasis (bladder). Factors that can lead to stone formation are urine becomes saturated with stone forming salts (calcium, struvite, uric acid, cystine); cause can be chemical, metabolic or genetic. Stasis of urine allows for crystal formation which is commonly caused by urinary obstruction or neurogenic bladder." "An ascending lower urinary tract infection (more commonly in women or during pregnancy) often leads to which condition? - CORRECT ANSWER Glomerulonephritis Pyelonephritis Nephrolithiasis Acute Kidney Injury" "What are the body's natural defenses against lower urinary tract infections? - CORRECT ANSWER wbc and osmolarirty" "What is the most common type of bladder cancer? Where in the bladder does this type of cancer begin and at what point can it begin to metastasize? What is typically the only indication that one might have bladder cancer? - CORRECT ANSWER The most common type of bladder cancer is TCC (transitional cell carcinoma)-90%, begins on the bladders interior surface and as it grows protrudes into bladder lumen and eventually into the bladder muscle, where it can metastasize. Diagnostic tests such as antigen test or CT or ultra sound painless hematuria" "Describe at least 3 problems observed throughout the body as a result of End Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) and why this problem is caused by poor kidney function. What are the two treatments for ESRD? - CORRECT ANSWER edema, hypertension and uremic frost. Edema and hypertension occur due to kidneys not being able to filter water out of the bloodstream. Uremic frost occurs because urea builds up in the body and as one sweats urea is deposited on the skin forming crystals as the sweat evaporates. Treatments for ESRD are kidney transplant and dialysis." "What are two differences between hemodialysis and Continuous Renal Replacement Therapy (CRRT)? Why might CRRT be the preferred treatment over hemodialysis? - CORRECT ANSWER CRRT is slower than hemodialysis and for longer periods of time (24 hours or longer). CRRT patients are typically demonstrating signs of acute renal failure, but also are critically ill or hemodynamically unstable (having trouble maintaining blood pressure)" "Why is the Pituitary gland considered the Master gland of the endocrine system? Describe any two disorders of your choice that are caused by pituitary gland dysfunction - CORRECT ANSWER 1. The pituitary is considered the master gland because it either makes and secretes or stores and secretes the majority of the tropic hormones., 2. Diabetes insipidus is a hypopituitarism disorder in which ADH is not secreted from the posterior pituitary. 3. Syndrome of Inappropriate ADH (SIADH) is the opposite disorder - hyperpituitarism resulting in excessive secretion of ADH." "Compare hormonal vs neural signals. Comment on the need for these differences based on the response time required. - CORRECT ANSWER Both hormonal and neural signals are required for our body to respond to environmental and developmental changes. Neuronal responses are almost immediate, allowing responses such as the ability to move and balance, the 5 senses, and the regulation of autonomic responses. Hormonal responses are more long term, allowing reactions that can occur over several minutes or even over several days! allows for negative feedback loops to occur to maintain our body's responses over a longer period." "Give an example of primary hyperthyroid disease. Describe the pathophysiology and manifestations of this disease. - CORRECT ANSWER Primary hyperthyroid disease occurs when thyroid-stimulating antibodies activate the thyroid itself to secrete excess T3 and T4. Grave's Disease enlarge thyroid, nervousness, insomnia, sensitivity to heat, weight loss, and potentially cardiac arrhythmia. Exophthalmos may also result due to extraocular deposits that push the eyes forward and can cause edema - this will result in visual impairment if it is prolonged."