UWise OBGYN Exam Part 1 Questions AND Correct Answers
12 yo female patient presents to the office for a routine exam.
She is in good health. She has Tanner stage 3 but has not yet
mensturated. On palpation of the abdomen a suprapubic
mass is noted. Pelvic US reveals a 8 cm solid lesion of the right
adnexa. Which of the following lab tests would be most
helpful in her diagnosis? - ✔✔Lactate dehydrogenase
16 yo female patient comes to the doctor to discuss
contraception. She recently became sexually active and states
she has never had a menstrual cycle. She regularly attends
school and participates in the band. On physical exam, she is 5
ft 3 in and weighs 130 lbs. She has no secondary sexual
characteristics with normal appearing external genitalia. The
physician is concerned for the diagnosis of Kallman syndrome.
Which of the following is the next best step in her care? -
✔✔Olfactory challenge
18 yo G0 woman presents to discuss her risk of ovarian
cancer. Her best friend's mother was just diagnosed with
ovarian cancer. Patient is healthy, on combined hormonal
contraception, has a family history of colon cancer in her
paternal grandpa, breast cancer in her maternal aunt... Which
of the following points in her histiry changes her risk of
,ovarian cancer from the baseline population risk? -
✔✔Medications
22 year old G1P1 woman delivered five days ago after a
prolonged labor and subsequent cesarean delivery for arrest
of cervical dilation at 7 cm. She developed a fever on postop
day two and despite broad spectrum antibiotics for 48 hours,
she continues to have temp spikes above 102. She is eating a
normal diet and ambulating normally. On physical exam, her
breasts have no erythema. Her abdomen is soft, her uterine
fundus is firm and nontender and her incision is healing
without induration or erythema. She has normal lochia and
her UA is normal. Pelvic exam reveals a firm, nontender
uterus and no adnexal masses or tenderness. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of her fever? - ✔✔Septic
pelvic thrombophlebitis
24 hours ago, a 28 year old G1P1 woman had a cesarean
delivery for breech presentation with premature rupture of
the fetal membranes. She now reports increasing abdominal
pain, cramping, and heavy foul smelling lochia. Her VS reveal a
temp of 100.2, pulse 90 bpm, BP 120/60, and RR 18. She has a
tender uterine fundus that measures the umbilicus. Her
extremities reveal mild bilateral edema with no erythema or
tenderness. Blood work reveals a leukocyte count of 12.2 and
,hematocrit of 34%. In addition to gentamicin, which of the
following would be the best antibiotic choice? -
✔✔Clindamycin
25 yo G1P1 woman comes in for her annual health
maintenance exam. She has intermittent LLQ discomfort. She
has regular menses every 30 days and uses condoms for birth
control. Her LMP was ~2 weeks ago. Her physical exam is
notable for a tender left adnexal mass. Bedside US shows a
left 2x3 cm unilocular simple ovarian cyst. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? -
✔✔Follicular cyst
29 year old G1P0 woman at 42 weeks gestation presents in
labor. She does not have ruptured membranes. Her prenatal
course was complicated by chronic HTN. Her VS are BP
130/80, pulse 72 bpm, temp 100.2, fundal height 36 cm, and
estimated fetal weight of 2100 g. Cervix is dilated to 4 cm,
100% effaced, and +1 station. Most likely underlying cause for
this tracing (shows repetitive late decels) - ✔✔Uteroplacental
insuffciency
31 yr old G0 woman has been diagnosed with uterine fibroids.
A saline infusion sonohysterogram confirmed the presence of
2 intramural fibroids 5x6 cm and 2x3 cm that distort the
, uterine cavity. The patient has a 2 yr history of infertility and
the rest of her infertility workup was normal. Which of the
following is the next best step in the management of this
patient? - ✔✔Myomectomy
33 yo G0 woman presents to the ER with worsening left sided
pelvic pain that began 2 days ago. This is her second episode
in 2 mos. patient's histiry is significant for a decent DVT
diagnosed 2 mos ago in the setting of combine hormonal
contraceptive use. She has no other medical issues and her
medications include apixaban. Her menses occur every 30
days lasting 3 days of light flow, but her most recent menses
lasted 7 days of moderate flow. Her LMP was 3 weeks ago.
She is not sexually active. Her VS inclue 98.6, BP 130/86, and
pulse 98 bpm. Her pelvic exam reveals a tender enlarged left
adnexal mass. US shows a 6 cm hemorrhagic cyst with no free
fluid. Which of the following would be the most appropriate
step to prevent recurrence? - ✔✔Insert contraceptive implant
36 hours ago, a 23 year old G1P1 woman at 39 weeks
gestation delivered vaginally and experienced a 2nd degree
laceration. She had a prolonged first stage of labor, ruptured
membranes for 26 hours, and recieved penicillin for group B
strep prophylaxis. She now reports increasing abdominal pain,
cramping, and heavy, foul smelling lochia. Her vital signs
12 yo female patient presents to the office for a routine exam.
She is in good health. She has Tanner stage 3 but has not yet
mensturated. On palpation of the abdomen a suprapubic
mass is noted. Pelvic US reveals a 8 cm solid lesion of the right
adnexa. Which of the following lab tests would be most
helpful in her diagnosis? - ✔✔Lactate dehydrogenase
16 yo female patient comes to the doctor to discuss
contraception. She recently became sexually active and states
she has never had a menstrual cycle. She regularly attends
school and participates in the band. On physical exam, she is 5
ft 3 in and weighs 130 lbs. She has no secondary sexual
characteristics with normal appearing external genitalia. The
physician is concerned for the diagnosis of Kallman syndrome.
Which of the following is the next best step in her care? -
✔✔Olfactory challenge
18 yo G0 woman presents to discuss her risk of ovarian
cancer. Her best friend's mother was just diagnosed with
ovarian cancer. Patient is healthy, on combined hormonal
contraception, has a family history of colon cancer in her
paternal grandpa, breast cancer in her maternal aunt... Which
of the following points in her histiry changes her risk of
,ovarian cancer from the baseline population risk? -
✔✔Medications
22 year old G1P1 woman delivered five days ago after a
prolonged labor and subsequent cesarean delivery for arrest
of cervical dilation at 7 cm. She developed a fever on postop
day two and despite broad spectrum antibiotics for 48 hours,
she continues to have temp spikes above 102. She is eating a
normal diet and ambulating normally. On physical exam, her
breasts have no erythema. Her abdomen is soft, her uterine
fundus is firm and nontender and her incision is healing
without induration or erythema. She has normal lochia and
her UA is normal. Pelvic exam reveals a firm, nontender
uterus and no adnexal masses or tenderness. Which of the
following is the most likely cause of her fever? - ✔✔Septic
pelvic thrombophlebitis
24 hours ago, a 28 year old G1P1 woman had a cesarean
delivery for breech presentation with premature rupture of
the fetal membranes. She now reports increasing abdominal
pain, cramping, and heavy foul smelling lochia. Her VS reveal a
temp of 100.2, pulse 90 bpm, BP 120/60, and RR 18. She has a
tender uterine fundus that measures the umbilicus. Her
extremities reveal mild bilateral edema with no erythema or
tenderness. Blood work reveals a leukocyte count of 12.2 and
,hematocrit of 34%. In addition to gentamicin, which of the
following would be the best antibiotic choice? -
✔✔Clindamycin
25 yo G1P1 woman comes in for her annual health
maintenance exam. She has intermittent LLQ discomfort. She
has regular menses every 30 days and uses condoms for birth
control. Her LMP was ~2 weeks ago. Her physical exam is
notable for a tender left adnexal mass. Bedside US shows a
left 2x3 cm unilocular simple ovarian cyst. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient? -
✔✔Follicular cyst
29 year old G1P0 woman at 42 weeks gestation presents in
labor. She does not have ruptured membranes. Her prenatal
course was complicated by chronic HTN. Her VS are BP
130/80, pulse 72 bpm, temp 100.2, fundal height 36 cm, and
estimated fetal weight of 2100 g. Cervix is dilated to 4 cm,
100% effaced, and +1 station. Most likely underlying cause for
this tracing (shows repetitive late decels) - ✔✔Uteroplacental
insuffciency
31 yr old G0 woman has been diagnosed with uterine fibroids.
A saline infusion sonohysterogram confirmed the presence of
2 intramural fibroids 5x6 cm and 2x3 cm that distort the
, uterine cavity. The patient has a 2 yr history of infertility and
the rest of her infertility workup was normal. Which of the
following is the next best step in the management of this
patient? - ✔✔Myomectomy
33 yo G0 woman presents to the ER with worsening left sided
pelvic pain that began 2 days ago. This is her second episode
in 2 mos. patient's histiry is significant for a decent DVT
diagnosed 2 mos ago in the setting of combine hormonal
contraceptive use. She has no other medical issues and her
medications include apixaban. Her menses occur every 30
days lasting 3 days of light flow, but her most recent menses
lasted 7 days of moderate flow. Her LMP was 3 weeks ago.
She is not sexually active. Her VS inclue 98.6, BP 130/86, and
pulse 98 bpm. Her pelvic exam reveals a tender enlarged left
adnexal mass. US shows a 6 cm hemorrhagic cyst with no free
fluid. Which of the following would be the most appropriate
step to prevent recurrence? - ✔✔Insert contraceptive implant
36 hours ago, a 23 year old G1P1 woman at 39 weeks
gestation delivered vaginally and experienced a 2nd degree
laceration. She had a prolonged first stage of labor, ruptured
membranes for 26 hours, and recieved penicillin for group B
strep prophylaxis. She now reports increasing abdominal pain,
cramping, and heavy, foul smelling lochia. Her vital signs
