Texas Nurse Practitioner Certification
Exam With Actual Questions & Verified
Answers,Plus Rationales/Expert
Verified For Guaranteed Pass Graded
A+/2026 /Latest Update/Instant
Download Pdf
Texas Nurse Practitioner Certification Exam
1. The most appropriate initial treatment for mild persistent asthma is:
A. Short-acting beta agonist as needed
B. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
C. Oral corticosteroids daily
D. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Rationale: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids are the first-line
maintenance therapy for mild persistent asthma to reduce airway
inflammation.
2. Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Cephalexin
Rationale: Doxycycline, a tetracycline, can cause fetal tooth
discoloration and inhibit bone growth.
3. A 56-year-old diabetic presents with foot ulcer and purulent drainage.
The most likely causative organism is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
, C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli
Rationale: S. aureus is the most common pathogen in diabetic foot
infections.
4. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in
immunocompromised patients?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. MMR
C. Pneumococcal
D. Hepatitis B
Rationale: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and should not be given to
immunocompromised individuals.
5. The normal therapeutic range for lithium is:
A. 0.1–0.5 mEq/L
B. 0.6–1.2 mEq/L
C. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
D. 2.0–3.0 mEq/L
Rationale: The therapeutic range of lithium is 0.6–1.2 mEq/L; higher
levels may cause toxicity.
6. A nurse practitioner suspects temporal arteritis. The most appropriate
initial diagnostic test is:
A. CT scan of head
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
C. MRI of brain
D. Carotid Doppler
Rationale: Temporal arteritis usually presents with elevated ESR due to
systemic inflammation.
7. Which heart sound is associated with heart failure?
A. S3
B. S4
C. Split S2
D. Ejection click
, Rationale: An S3 heart sound occurs due to rapid ventricular filling and
is associated with volume overload in heart failure.
8. The hallmark sign of Graves’ disease is:
A. Weight gain
B. Bradycardia
C. Exophthalmos
D. Cold intolerance
Rationale: Graves’ disease, a hyperthyroid state, often presents with
exophthalmos (protruding eyes) due to autoimmune inflammation.
9. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is the leading cause of community-acquired
pneumonia.
10.A patient on warfarin has an INR of 8.0 without bleeding. The next step
is:
A. Hold warfarin and give oral vitamin K
B. Continue warfarin at lower dose
C. Give fresh frozen plasma
D. Hospitalize immediately
Rationale: Elevated INR without bleeding requires holding warfarin
and administering oral vitamin K.
11.The normal value for TSH in adults is approximately:
A. 0.1–0.4 µIU/mL
B. 0.4–4.0 µIU/mL
C. 5.0–8.0 µIU/mL
D. 10–20 µIU/mL
Rationale: Normal TSH levels are typically 0.4–4.0 µIU/mL; elevated
levels indicate hypothyroidism.
12.Which of the following conditions requires prophylactic antibiotics
before dental procedures?
Exam With Actual Questions & Verified
Answers,Plus Rationales/Expert
Verified For Guaranteed Pass Graded
A+/2026 /Latest Update/Instant
Download Pdf
Texas Nurse Practitioner Certification Exam
1. The most appropriate initial treatment for mild persistent asthma is:
A. Short-acting beta agonist as needed
B. Low-dose inhaled corticosteroid
C. Oral corticosteroids daily
D. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
Rationale: Low-dose inhaled corticosteroids are the first-line
maintenance therapy for mild persistent asthma to reduce airway
inflammation.
2. Which of the following antibiotics is contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Erythromycin
C. Doxycycline
D. Cephalexin
Rationale: Doxycycline, a tetracycline, can cause fetal tooth
discoloration and inhibit bone growth.
3. A 56-year-old diabetic presents with foot ulcer and purulent drainage.
The most likely causative organism is:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pyogenes
, C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
D. Escherichia coli
Rationale: S. aureus is the most common pathogen in diabetic foot
infections.
4. Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in
immunocompromised patients?
A. Influenza (inactivated)
B. MMR
C. Pneumococcal
D. Hepatitis B
Rationale: MMR is a live attenuated vaccine and should not be given to
immunocompromised individuals.
5. The normal therapeutic range for lithium is:
A. 0.1–0.5 mEq/L
B. 0.6–1.2 mEq/L
C. 1.5–2.5 mEq/L
D. 2.0–3.0 mEq/L
Rationale: The therapeutic range of lithium is 0.6–1.2 mEq/L; higher
levels may cause toxicity.
6. A nurse practitioner suspects temporal arteritis. The most appropriate
initial diagnostic test is:
A. CT scan of head
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
C. MRI of brain
D. Carotid Doppler
Rationale: Temporal arteritis usually presents with elevated ESR due to
systemic inflammation.
7. Which heart sound is associated with heart failure?
A. S3
B. S4
C. Split S2
D. Ejection click
, Rationale: An S3 heart sound occurs due to rapid ventricular filling and
is associated with volume overload in heart failure.
8. The hallmark sign of Graves’ disease is:
A. Weight gain
B. Bradycardia
C. Exophthalmos
D. Cold intolerance
Rationale: Graves’ disease, a hyperthyroid state, often presents with
exophthalmos (protruding eyes) due to autoimmune inflammation.
9. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in adults is:
A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C. Legionella pneumophila
D. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
Rationale: S. pneumoniae is the leading cause of community-acquired
pneumonia.
10.A patient on warfarin has an INR of 8.0 without bleeding. The next step
is:
A. Hold warfarin and give oral vitamin K
B. Continue warfarin at lower dose
C. Give fresh frozen plasma
D. Hospitalize immediately
Rationale: Elevated INR without bleeding requires holding warfarin
and administering oral vitamin K.
11.The normal value for TSH in adults is approximately:
A. 0.1–0.4 µIU/mL
B. 0.4–4.0 µIU/mL
C. 5.0–8.0 µIU/mL
D. 10–20 µIU/mL
Rationale: Normal TSH levels are typically 0.4–4.0 µIU/mL; elevated
levels indicate hypothyroidism.
12.Which of the following conditions requires prophylactic antibiotics
before dental procedures?
