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Pharmacology for the Primary Care Provider: Study Guide (2025/2026 Syllabus)

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Pharmacology for the Primary Care Provider: Study Guide (2025/2026 Syllabus) Disclaimer: This guide is a supplement to, not a replacement for, the textbook and official course materials. Drug choices and dosages must be verified with current, authoritative sources before clinical application. Module 1: Foundations of Pharmacology & Prescribing 1. QUESTION: What are the four key components of pharmacokinetics? ANSWER: Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion. 2. QUESTION: A 65-year-old patient with heart failure requires a medication. How might their age-related decrease in renal function alter the drug's pharmacokinetics? ANSWER: Reduced renal excretion may lead to drug accumulation, increasing the risk of toxicity. Dosing intervals may need to be lengthened or doses reduced. 3. QUESTION: What is the "First Pass Effect" and how does it impact oral drug administration? ANSWER: It is the metabolism of a drug by the liver after absorption from the GI tract and before it reaches systemic circulation. It can significantly reduce the bioavailability of the drug. 4. QUESTION: Differentiate between a drug's mechanism of action and its therapeutic effect. ANSWER: The mechanism of action is the specific biochemical interaction through which the drug produces its effect (e.g., blocking a receptor). The therapeutic effect is the desired beneficial outcome (e.g., reduced blood pressure). 5. QUESTION: Why is the concept of "Half-life" critical in determining a dosing schedule? ANSWER: The half-life determines how long a drug remains active in the body. Drugs with a short half-life require more frequent dosing to maintain therapeutic levels, while those with a long half-life can be dosed less frequently. 6. QUESTION: What is the primary safety consideration when prescribing a drug with a narrow therapeutic index? ANSWER: There is a very small margin between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose. Serum drug level monitoring and close patient observation are often required. 7. QUESTION: Describe the role of Cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism and provide one example of a drug interaction it can cause. ANSWER: CYP450 enzymes are responsible for metabolizing many drugs. Example: Fluconazole (an inhibitor of CYP3A4) can increase levels of simvastatin (metabolized by CYP3A4), raising the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. 8. QUESTION: What is the Beers Criteria, and why is it important for a primary care provider? ANSWER: It is a list of medications that are potentially inappropriate for use in older adults due to increased risks of adverse effects. It is a key tool for improving medication safety in the geriatric population. 9. QUESTION: In the context of prescribing, what does the acronym "TERM" stand for in patient education? ANSWER: Therapeutic goal, Effects (both desired and adverse), Route/dosage/timing, Monitoring. 10. QUESTION: A patient's pharmacogenomic profile indicates they are a "poor metabolizer" for a specific CYP450 enzyme. How would this influence your prescribing? ANSWER: I would avoid drugs that are primarily metabolized by that enzyme or choose an alternative. If no alternative exists, I would initiate therapy at a much lower dose to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity. Module 2: Autonomic & Cardiovascular Pharmacology 11. QUESTION: What is the first-line pharmacologic class for uncomplicated hypertension in most patients, according to JNC 8 guidelines? ANSWER: Thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), or Calcium channel blockers. 12. QUESTION: A patient starting an ACE inhibitor (like lisinopril) should be monitored for what two common side effects? ANSWER: A persistent dry cough and hyperkalemia.

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Pharmacology for the Primary Care Provider: Study Guide
(2025/2026 Syllabus)
Disclaimer: This guide is a supplement to, not a replacement for, the textbook and
official course materials. Drug choices and dosages must be verified with current,
authoritative sources before clinical application.




Module 1: Foundations of Pharmacology & Prescribing
1. QUESTION: What are the four key components of pharmacokinetics?
ANSWER: ✓ Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

2. QUESTION: A 65-year-old patient with heart failure requires a medication. How
might their age-related decrease in renal function alter the drug's pharmacokinetics?
ANSWER: ✓ Reduced renal excretion may lead to drug accumulation, increasing the risk
of toxicity. Dosing intervals may need to be lengthened or doses reduced.

3. QUESTION: What is the "First Pass Effect" and how does it impact oral drug
administration?
ANSWER: ✓ It is the metabolism of a drug by the liver after absorption from the GI tract
and before it reaches systemic circulation. It can significantly reduce the bioavailability
of the drug.

4. QUESTION: Differentiate between a drug's mechanism of action and its therapeutic
effect.
ANSWER: ✓ The mechanism of action is the specific biochemical interaction through
which the drug produces its effect (e.g., blocking a receptor). The therapeutic effect is
the desired beneficial outcome (e.g., reduced blood pressure).

5. QUESTION: Why is the concept of "Half-life" critical in determining a dosing
schedule?
ANSWER: ✓ The half-life determines how long a drug remains active in the body. Drugs
with a short half-life require more frequent dosing to maintain therapeutic levels, while
those with a long half-life can be dosed less frequently.

, 6. QUESTION: What is the primary safety consideration when prescribing a drug with a
narrow therapeutic index?
ANSWER: ✓ There is a very small margin between the therapeutic dose and the toxic
dose. Serum drug level monitoring and close patient observation are often required.

7. QUESTION: Describe the role of Cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism and
provide one example of a drug interaction it can cause.
ANSWER: ✓ CYP450 enzymes are responsible for metabolizing many drugs. Example:
Fluconazole (an inhibitor of CYP3A4) can increase levels of simvastatin (metabolized by
CYP3A4), raising the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis.

8. QUESTION: What is the Beers Criteria, and why is it important for a primary care
provider?
ANSWER: ✓ It is a list of medications that are potentially inappropriate for use in older
adults due to increased risks of adverse effects. It is a key tool for improving medication
safety in the geriatric population.

9. QUESTION: In the context of prescribing, what does the acronym "TERM" stand for in
patient education?
ANSWER: ✓ Therapeutic goal, Effects (both desired and
adverse), Route/dosage/timing, Monitoring.

10. QUESTION: A patient's pharmacogenomic profile indicates they are a "poor
metabolizer" for a specific CYP450 enzyme. How would this influence your prescribing?
ANSWER: ✓ I would avoid drugs that are primarily metabolized by that enzyme or
choose an alternative. If no alternative exists, I would initiate therapy at a much lower
dose to prevent drug accumulation and toxicity.




Module 2: Autonomic & Cardiovascular Pharmacology
11. QUESTION: What is the first-line pharmacologic class for uncomplicated
hypertension in most patients, according to JNC 8 guidelines?
ANSWER: ✓ Thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors, Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs),
or Calcium channel blockers.

12. QUESTION: A patient starting an ACE inhibitor (like lisinopril) should be monitored
for what two common side effects?
ANSWER: ✓ A persistent dry cough and hyperkalemia.

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