AANP Actual Exam
AANP Actual Exam
AANP Exam 6 Questions and Answers
Brand New Version 2025 A+
A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a persistent, worsening cough for 2 weeks. She
reports coughing spells and states that it is difficult to stop coughing once it starts. The nurse
practitioner suspects acute bronchitis due to pertussis because of a local outbreak. Which of the
following is the most appropriate plan of care?
A.
Educate the patient about symptomatic relief
B.
Follow up in 1 week if the cough persists
C.
Prescribe azithromycin (Zithromax)
D.
Prescribe cephalexin (Keflex)
- Correct Answer :C.
Prescribe azithromycin (Zithromax)
Most cases of acute bronchitis are viral in nature and only require symptomatic relief. When
patients have prolonged symptoms or the bronchitis is caused by Bordetella pertussis, antibiotics
are necessary. Macrolides are the antibiotics of choice in the treatment of pertussis, so
prescribing azithromycin (Zithromax) (C) is the most appropriate plan of care for this patient. She
A+ TEST BANK 1
, AANP Actual Exam
should be educated that while this will limit the spread of infection, it will not likely decrease the
length of symptoms. The whooping cough will persist until the lungs are fully healed.
Acute bronchitis is defined as inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi characterized by a
cough that lasts 1-3 weeks without evidence of consolidation (e.g., pneumonia) or underlying
cardiopulmonary disease. It is a self-limiting condition and is most often viral in origin. It is
diagnosed based on the presence of an acute cough that can either be dry or productive.
Patients may have dyspnea and wheezing. Cigarette smoking often causes more severe disease,
and clinicians may consider undiagnosed asthma or COPD. A common myth among patients is
that sputum that has color (e.g., green) requires antibiotics due to bacteria, but purulent sputum
production is often a result of sloughing of the tracheal bronchial epithelium. Patients with a
paroxysmal cough that lasts > 2 weeks should be suspected to have B. pertussis, especially in the
presence of a community outbreak. This is rarely life-threatening, but diagnosis is important to
reduce spread. A common symptom of acute bronchitis due to B. pertussis is post-tussive
vomiting. If macrolides cannot be used in the treatment of pertussis, trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) can also be used.
A nurse practitioner student is reviewing causes of community-acquired pneumonia with the
preceptor. The preceptor notes that which of the following pathogens leads to the most overall
deaths in patients with community-acquired pneumonia?
A.
Legionella pneumophila
B.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C.
Staphylococcus aureus
D.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Correct Answer :D.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is an infection of the lung tissue, which is responsible for
gas exchange. CAP is acquired outside of the hospital setting. The most common pathogen of
CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae (D), which is also responsible for the most overall deaths in
patients with CAP.
The American Cancer Society's cervical cancer screening guidelines are relied upon by nurse
practitioners. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding human papillomavirus
(HPV) screening and Pap smears?
A+ TEST BANK 1
,A.
AANP Actual Exam
Due to the fact that HPV tests are so reliable, they do not have to be repeated as often as Pap
smears
B.
Pap smears are responsible for drastic decreases in cervical cancer rates
C.
Pap smears have a higher sensitivity than HPV tests when it comes to accuracy
D.
There have been studies that prove HPV testing is more reliable than Pap smears –
Correct Answer :C.
Pap smears have a higher sensitivity than HPV tests when it comes to accuracy
According to the American Cancer Society, HPV testing is more sensitive and specific compared
to the Pap smear (C). The HPV test is a screening measure that detects infection by high-risk
types of HPV. It can be conducted alone or with the Pap test, which is also known as a cotest.
A 43-year-old Black patient with a history of osteoporosis and peripheral arterial disease
presents to the clinic for a follow-up on elevated blood pressure readings. At the previous visit 3
months ago, the nurse practitioner discussed lifestyle modifications and implementation of a
A+ TEST BANK 2
, AANP Actual Exam
blood pressure log. Home blood pressure readings from the last 4 days are 135/92 mm Hg,
136/86 mm Hg, 140/84 mm Hg, and 139/88 mm Hg. Which of the following plans would be most
beneficial for this patient?
A.
Continue lifestyle modification
B.
Initiate chlorthalidone (Thalitone)
C.
Initiate lisinopril (Prinivil)
D.
Initiate metoprolol (Lopressor)
- Correct Answer :B.
Initiate chlorthalidone (Thalitone)
Since the patient has a history of peripheral arterial disease and has already attempted 3 months
of lifestyle interventions, medication initiation is warranted. Angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB), thiazide diuretics, and calcium channel
blockers are all recommended therapies in the treatment of hypertension. The American Heart
Association (AHA) and the American College of Cardiology (ACC) offer race-specific
recommendations only for Black patients. Patients without heart failure or chronic kidney
disease and who do not require two-drug therapy should be prescribed a thiazide diuretic, such
as chlorthalidone (B), or a calcium antagonist. Black patients with heart failure or chronic kidney
disease should be prescribed an angiotensin receptor blocker.Determining the blood pressure
threshold for the initiation of antihypertensive therapy is complicated. Clinicians must consider
the patient's age, comorbidities, atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk, and presence or
absence of confirmed cardiovascular disease (CVD). Blood pressure reduction goals are based on
protection against pressure-related CVD events. A normal blood pressure is < 120/80 mm Hg. An
elevated blood pressure is 120-129 mm Hg systolic and < 80 mm Hg diastolic. Stage 1
hypertension is defined as 130-139 mm Hg systolic or 80-89 mm Hg diastolic. Stage 2
hypertension is defined as ≥ 140 mm Hg systolic or ≥ 90 mm Hg diastolic. This patient requires
drug initiation since her blood pressure is consistently > 130/80 mm Hg.
A+ TEST BANK 3
AANP Actual Exam
AANP Exam 6 Questions and Answers
Brand New Version 2025 A+
A 32-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a persistent, worsening cough for 2 weeks. She
reports coughing spells and states that it is difficult to stop coughing once it starts. The nurse
practitioner suspects acute bronchitis due to pertussis because of a local outbreak. Which of the
following is the most appropriate plan of care?
A.
Educate the patient about symptomatic relief
B.
Follow up in 1 week if the cough persists
C.
Prescribe azithromycin (Zithromax)
D.
Prescribe cephalexin (Keflex)
- Correct Answer :C.
Prescribe azithromycin (Zithromax)
Most cases of acute bronchitis are viral in nature and only require symptomatic relief. When
patients have prolonged symptoms or the bronchitis is caused by Bordetella pertussis, antibiotics
are necessary. Macrolides are the antibiotics of choice in the treatment of pertussis, so
prescribing azithromycin (Zithromax) (C) is the most appropriate plan of care for this patient. She
A+ TEST BANK 1
, AANP Actual Exam
should be educated that while this will limit the spread of infection, it will not likely decrease the
length of symptoms. The whooping cough will persist until the lungs are fully healed.
Acute bronchitis is defined as inflammation of the trachea and major bronchi characterized by a
cough that lasts 1-3 weeks without evidence of consolidation (e.g., pneumonia) or underlying
cardiopulmonary disease. It is a self-limiting condition and is most often viral in origin. It is
diagnosed based on the presence of an acute cough that can either be dry or productive.
Patients may have dyspnea and wheezing. Cigarette smoking often causes more severe disease,
and clinicians may consider undiagnosed asthma or COPD. A common myth among patients is
that sputum that has color (e.g., green) requires antibiotics due to bacteria, but purulent sputum
production is often a result of sloughing of the tracheal bronchial epithelium. Patients with a
paroxysmal cough that lasts > 2 weeks should be suspected to have B. pertussis, especially in the
presence of a community outbreak. This is rarely life-threatening, but diagnosis is important to
reduce spread. A common symptom of acute bronchitis due to B. pertussis is post-tussive
vomiting. If macrolides cannot be used in the treatment of pertussis, trimethoprim-
sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) can also be used.
A nurse practitioner student is reviewing causes of community-acquired pneumonia with the
preceptor. The preceptor notes that which of the following pathogens leads to the most overall
deaths in patients with community-acquired pneumonia?
A.
Legionella pneumophila
B.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C.
Staphylococcus aureus
D.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Correct Answer :D.
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is an infection of the lung tissue, which is responsible for
gas exchange. CAP is acquired outside of the hospital setting. The most common pathogen of
CAP is Streptococcus pneumoniae (D), which is also responsible for the most overall deaths in
patients with CAP.
The American Cancer Society's cervical cancer screening guidelines are relied upon by nurse
practitioners. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding human papillomavirus
(HPV) screening and Pap smears?
A+ TEST BANK 1
,A.
AANP Actual Exam
Due to the fact that HPV tests are so reliable, they do not have to be repeated as often as Pap
smears
B.
Pap smears are responsible for drastic decreases in cervical cancer rates
C.
Pap smears have a higher sensitivity than HPV tests when it comes to accuracy
D.
There have been studies that prove HPV testing is more reliable than Pap smears –
Correct Answer :C.
Pap smears have a higher sensitivity than HPV tests when it comes to accuracy
According to the American Cancer Society, HPV testing is more sensitive and specific compared
to the Pap smear (C). The HPV test is a screening measure that detects infection by high-risk
types of HPV. It can be conducted alone or with the Pap test, which is also known as a cotest.
A 43-year-old Black patient with a history of osteoporosis and peripheral arterial disease
presents to the clinic for a follow-up on elevated blood pressure readings. At the previous visit 3
months ago, the nurse practitioner discussed lifestyle modifications and implementation of a
A+ TEST BANK 2
, AANP Actual Exam
blood pressure log. Home blood pressure readings from the last 4 days are 135/92 mm Hg,
136/86 mm Hg, 140/84 mm Hg, and 139/88 mm Hg. Which of the following plans would be most
beneficial for this patient?
A.
Continue lifestyle modification
B.
Initiate chlorthalidone (Thalitone)
C.
Initiate lisinopril (Prinivil)
D.
Initiate metoprolol (Lopressor)
- Correct Answer :B.
Initiate chlorthalidone (Thalitone)
Since the patient has a history of peripheral arterial disease and has already attempted 3 months
of lifestyle interventions, medication initiation is warranted. Angiotensin-converting enzyme
(ACE) inhibitors, angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB), thiazide diuretics, and calcium channel
blockers are all recommended therapies in the treatment of hypertension. The American Heart
Association (AHA) and the American College of Cardiology (ACC) offer race-specific
recommendations only for Black patients. Patients without heart failure or chronic kidney
disease and who do not require two-drug therapy should be prescribed a thiazide diuretic, such
as chlorthalidone (B), or a calcium antagonist. Black patients with heart failure or chronic kidney
disease should be prescribed an angiotensin receptor blocker.Determining the blood pressure
threshold for the initiation of antihypertensive therapy is complicated. Clinicians must consider
the patient's age, comorbidities, atherosclerotic cardiovascular disease risk, and presence or
absence of confirmed cardiovascular disease (CVD). Blood pressure reduction goals are based on
protection against pressure-related CVD events. A normal blood pressure is < 120/80 mm Hg. An
elevated blood pressure is 120-129 mm Hg systolic and < 80 mm Hg diastolic. Stage 1
hypertension is defined as 130-139 mm Hg systolic or 80-89 mm Hg diastolic. Stage 2
hypertension is defined as ≥ 140 mm Hg systolic or ≥ 90 mm Hg diastolic. This patient requires
drug initiation since her blood pressure is consistently > 130/80 mm Hg.
A+ TEST BANK 3
