NPTE FSBPT Practice Exam FSBPT
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1. Four months after sustaining a fractured humerus, a patient has reached
a plateau. Active and passive shoulder motions have improved but remain
impaired. The patient reports pain and tenderness when the fracture site is
palpated. The patient's temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What is the MOST likely
cause of the patient's lack of recent progress?
1.Infection of the fractured bone
2.Nonunion of the fracture
3.Heterotopic ossification
4.Compartment syndrome: 2.Nonunion of the fracture
Individuals who have a nonunion fracture often have pain, heat, and tenderness at the fracture site.
2. When monitoring the vital signs of a person who has mitral valve prolapse,
which of the following findings is MOST likely to be observed?
1.Bradypnea
2.Bradycardia
3.Tachypnea
4.Tachycardia: 4.Tachycardia
Tachycardia, which is rapid heart beat, is a clinical sign/symptom of mitral valve prolapse due to dysautonomia
3. The exercise shown in the photograph is LEAST appropriate for a patient who
has which of the following characteristics?
1.Anterior glenohumeral instability
2.Forward head posture
3.Limited glenohumeral lateral (external) rotation range of motion
4.Tightness of the pectoralis minor and pectoralis major: 1.Anterior glenohumeral insta-
bility
Patient in picture was in shoulder flexion an lateral rotation agains the wall.
The activity shown in the photograph will force the humeral head anteriorly, thus encouraging anterior dislocation.
, NPTE FSBPT Practice Exam FSBPT
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hwsgx8
Lateral (external) rotation and abduction should be avoided (pp. 547-548). This activity is appropriate for a patient
who has hypomobility, not ins
4. Four months after sustaining a fractured humerus, a patient has reached
a plateau. Active and passive shoulder motions have improved but remain
impaired. The patient reports pain and tenderness when the fracture site is
palpated. The patient's temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What is the MOST likely
cause of the patient's lack of recent progress?
1.Infection of the fractured bone
2.Nonunion of the fracture
3.Heterotopic ossification
4.Compartment syndrome: 2.Nonunion of the fracture
5. A patient with a recent history of immobilization has a new onset of unilateral
leg swelling with dependent edema. This condition is MOST likely due to:
1.congestive heart failure.
2.peripheral arterial disease.
3.deep vein thrombosis.
4.lymphedema.: 3.deep vein thrombosis.
6. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is CONTRAINDICATED for use on
a patient:
1.with a demand pacemaker.
2.with a history of stable angina.
3.with terminal cancer.
4.who is pregnant during labor.: 1.with a demand pacemaker
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation can be performed to treat a pregnant patient but may not be used over the
uterus. Electrical stimulation may be used for pain relief during labor.
7. In a patient with unilateral hip impairment, a cane is ordinarily used on the:
1.uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the abductors on the
involved side.
2.involved side to lessen the muscle force required of the hip abductors on that
side.
, NPTE FSBPT Practice Exam FSBPT
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hwsgx8
3.uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the adductors on the
involved side.
4.involved side to lessen the muscle force required of the hip abductors on the
uninvolved side.: 1.uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the abductors on the involved side.
Use of a cane on the uninvolved side will help to decrease the force required of the hip abductors on the impaired side
when weight-bearing.
8. A patient has been experiencing postural hypotension when moving from
supine to sitting position. To reduce the risk of hypotension, which of the
following actions should be implemented prior to treatment?
1.Elevate the head of the bed.
2.Place the bed in the Trendelenburg position.
3.Remove the patient's compression stockings.
4.Encourage the patient to limit consumption of salt.: 1.Elevate the head of the bed.
Elevating the head of the bed assists in venous return and decreases the risk of hypotension
9. Which of the following laboratory reports is MOST useful in determining the
effects of chronic diarrhea and vomiting?
1.Complete blood count
2.Renal function tests
3.Serum electrolytes
4.Serum enzymes: 3.Serum electrolytes
Body fluid loss associated with chronic diarrhea and vomiting may cause an imbalance in body chemistry that is best
determined by serum electrolyte testing (pp. 37, 773.e95).
The complete blood count is more useful for determining infection, blood loss, and clotting potential (p. 773.e300).
The effects of chronic diarrhea and vomiting are most associated with loss of fluid, which may cause an imbalance in
body chemistry that is best determined by serum electrolyte testing (p. 773.e95)
2. Gastrointestinal bleeding would increase blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, which is measured by kidney function
tests. This patient has chronic diarrhea and vomiting. (p. 773.e298)
, NPTE FSBPT Practice Exam FSBPT
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hwsgx8
Enzymes catalyze the chemical reactions that cells need to stay alive, but the enzymes are not destroyed. The types and
amounts of enzymes circulating in the bloodstream can indicate which cells (and therefore which organs) are damaged
10. Which of the following orthotic irregularities is MOST likely to contribute to
a patient exhibiting foot slap during the early stance phase of gait?
1.Inadequate dorsiflexion stop
2.Inadequate dorsiflexion assist
3.Inadequate plantar flexion assist
4.Inadequate transverse plane alignment: 2.Inadequate dorsiflexion assist
An inadequate dorsiflexion assist will cause less assistance with dorsiflexion, which could cause foot slap (p. 1310).
11. The symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, pruritus, and peripheral neuropathy
are MOST consistent with which of the following disorders?
1.Type 2 diabetes
2.Lymphedema
3.Myocardial infarction
4.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: 1.Type 2 diabetes
The symptoms of type 2 diabetes include polyuria, polydipsia, pruritus, and peripheral neuropathy (Goodman, p. 511).
12. The clinical presentation of lymphedema includes: swelling, pitting edema, fatigue,
tightness of the involved extremity, discomfort, loss of mobility/range-of-motion, and fibrotic changes of the dermis
13. Signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include: pain similar to that for angina
pectoris, heaviness or a tight feeling of the chest, nausea and vomiting, light-headedness, dyspnea, and hypotension
14. Clinical presentation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease includes: -
chronic cough, expectoration, and exertional dyspnea
15. A patient using a transtibial prosthesis excessively flexes the right knee
during the early stance phase of the gait cycle. Which of the following causes
is PRIMARILY responsible for this gait deviation?
1.Socket too far anterior
2.Socket too far posterior
3.Excessive foot inset
4.Excessive foot outset: 1.Socket too far anterior
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hwsgx8
1. Four months after sustaining a fractured humerus, a patient has reached
a plateau. Active and passive shoulder motions have improved but remain
impaired. The patient reports pain and tenderness when the fracture site is
palpated. The patient's temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What is the MOST likely
cause of the patient's lack of recent progress?
1.Infection of the fractured bone
2.Nonunion of the fracture
3.Heterotopic ossification
4.Compartment syndrome: 2.Nonunion of the fracture
Individuals who have a nonunion fracture often have pain, heat, and tenderness at the fracture site.
2. When monitoring the vital signs of a person who has mitral valve prolapse,
which of the following findings is MOST likely to be observed?
1.Bradypnea
2.Bradycardia
3.Tachypnea
4.Tachycardia: 4.Tachycardia
Tachycardia, which is rapid heart beat, is a clinical sign/symptom of mitral valve prolapse due to dysautonomia
3. The exercise shown in the photograph is LEAST appropriate for a patient who
has which of the following characteristics?
1.Anterior glenohumeral instability
2.Forward head posture
3.Limited glenohumeral lateral (external) rotation range of motion
4.Tightness of the pectoralis minor and pectoralis major: 1.Anterior glenohumeral insta-
bility
Patient in picture was in shoulder flexion an lateral rotation agains the wall.
The activity shown in the photograph will force the humeral head anteriorly, thus encouraging anterior dislocation.
, NPTE FSBPT Practice Exam FSBPT
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hwsgx8
Lateral (external) rotation and abduction should be avoided (pp. 547-548). This activity is appropriate for a patient
who has hypomobility, not ins
4. Four months after sustaining a fractured humerus, a patient has reached
a plateau. Active and passive shoulder motions have improved but remain
impaired. The patient reports pain and tenderness when the fracture site is
palpated. The patient's temperature is 98.6°F (37°C). What is the MOST likely
cause of the patient's lack of recent progress?
1.Infection of the fractured bone
2.Nonunion of the fracture
3.Heterotopic ossification
4.Compartment syndrome: 2.Nonunion of the fracture
5. A patient with a recent history of immobilization has a new onset of unilateral
leg swelling with dependent edema. This condition is MOST likely due to:
1.congestive heart failure.
2.peripheral arterial disease.
3.deep vein thrombosis.
4.lymphedema.: 3.deep vein thrombosis.
6. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation is CONTRAINDICATED for use on
a patient:
1.with a demand pacemaker.
2.with a history of stable angina.
3.with terminal cancer.
4.who is pregnant during labor.: 1.with a demand pacemaker
Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation can be performed to treat a pregnant patient but may not be used over the
uterus. Electrical stimulation may be used for pain relief during labor.
7. In a patient with unilateral hip impairment, a cane is ordinarily used on the:
1.uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the abductors on the
involved side.
2.involved side to lessen the muscle force required of the hip abductors on that
side.
, NPTE FSBPT Practice Exam FSBPT
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hwsgx8
3.uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the adductors on the
involved side.
4.involved side to lessen the muscle force required of the hip abductors on the
uninvolved side.: 1.uninvolved side to lessen the muscle force required of the abductors on the involved side.
Use of a cane on the uninvolved side will help to decrease the force required of the hip abductors on the impaired side
when weight-bearing.
8. A patient has been experiencing postural hypotension when moving from
supine to sitting position. To reduce the risk of hypotension, which of the
following actions should be implemented prior to treatment?
1.Elevate the head of the bed.
2.Place the bed in the Trendelenburg position.
3.Remove the patient's compression stockings.
4.Encourage the patient to limit consumption of salt.: 1.Elevate the head of the bed.
Elevating the head of the bed assists in venous return and decreases the risk of hypotension
9. Which of the following laboratory reports is MOST useful in determining the
effects of chronic diarrhea and vomiting?
1.Complete blood count
2.Renal function tests
3.Serum electrolytes
4.Serum enzymes: 3.Serum electrolytes
Body fluid loss associated with chronic diarrhea and vomiting may cause an imbalance in body chemistry that is best
determined by serum electrolyte testing (pp. 37, 773.e95).
The complete blood count is more useful for determining infection, blood loss, and clotting potential (p. 773.e300).
The effects of chronic diarrhea and vomiting are most associated with loss of fluid, which may cause an imbalance in
body chemistry that is best determined by serum electrolyte testing (p. 773.e95)
2. Gastrointestinal bleeding would increase blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels, which is measured by kidney function
tests. This patient has chronic diarrhea and vomiting. (p. 773.e298)
, NPTE FSBPT Practice Exam FSBPT
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_hwsgx8
Enzymes catalyze the chemical reactions that cells need to stay alive, but the enzymes are not destroyed. The types and
amounts of enzymes circulating in the bloodstream can indicate which cells (and therefore which organs) are damaged
10. Which of the following orthotic irregularities is MOST likely to contribute to
a patient exhibiting foot slap during the early stance phase of gait?
1.Inadequate dorsiflexion stop
2.Inadequate dorsiflexion assist
3.Inadequate plantar flexion assist
4.Inadequate transverse plane alignment: 2.Inadequate dorsiflexion assist
An inadequate dorsiflexion assist will cause less assistance with dorsiflexion, which could cause foot slap (p. 1310).
11. The symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, pruritus, and peripheral neuropathy
are MOST consistent with which of the following disorders?
1.Type 2 diabetes
2.Lymphedema
3.Myocardial infarction
4.Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: 1.Type 2 diabetes
The symptoms of type 2 diabetes include polyuria, polydipsia, pruritus, and peripheral neuropathy (Goodman, p. 511).
12. The clinical presentation of lymphedema includes: swelling, pitting edema, fatigue,
tightness of the involved extremity, discomfort, loss of mobility/range-of-motion, and fibrotic changes of the dermis
13. Signs and symptoms of myocardial infarction include: pain similar to that for angina
pectoris, heaviness or a tight feeling of the chest, nausea and vomiting, light-headedness, dyspnea, and hypotension
14. Clinical presentation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease includes: -
chronic cough, expectoration, and exertional dyspnea
15. A patient using a transtibial prosthesis excessively flexes the right knee
during the early stance phase of the gait cycle. Which of the following causes
is PRIMARILY responsible for this gait deviation?
1.Socket too far anterior
2.Socket too far posterior
3.Excessive foot inset
4.Excessive foot outset: 1.Socket too far anterior
