1
APEA 3P High Stakes Study Guide Exam Contains Questions with
Verified Answers Passing Score Guarantee
1. What are the anti-hypertensives used in pregnancy
Answer> Methyldopa (Al- pha-2-Agonist), Labetalol, Nifedipine, Hydralazine
2. What is a characteristic of Placenta Previa
Answer> Painless, red bleeding
3. What is a chacteristic of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Answer> Tender, warm, swollen joints
4. Medications that can cause ototoxicity
Answer> Aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, 114NSAIDs, / antihistamines, nasal
decongestants
5. What is the treatment time for enterobiasis
Answer> 2 weeks
6. What would cause decrease in Digoxin levels
Answer> Antacids
7. Taking Pyridium for UTI, what can Pyridium cause
Answer> Hemolytic Anemia
8. What can PCOS result in
Answer> Increased insulin levels (Hyperinsulinemia), Andro- gens, Hirsutism
9. What does MCV lab value measure
Answer> Mean Corpuscular Volume helps diag- nose different types of anemia such
as B12 & Folate (Macrocytic) and Fe anemia (Microcytic)
10. Rhogam is given at how many week gestation
Answer> 27-28 weeks
11. What are Janeway lesions and what do 2 / they indicate
, 3Ps high stakes exam
Answer> They are split pea-sized, erythematous, tender nodules located on the
pads of the fingers and toes. Seen in Infective Endocarditis
13. What is the recommendation for Warfarin management when a patient
misses a dose
Answer> If within 12 hours of the dose time, take it. If over 12 hours patient will need
a INR redraw
14. What do we need to know about ACEs and ARBs
Answer> A dry hacking cough is a common side effect of ACEs and will go away
within a week after discontinuing. ACEs & ARBs are indicated for patients with
DM, CKD, and HTN. Not recommended as 1st line agent with African Americans
& can cause angioedema.
15. Contraindications for Hydrochlorothiazide:
Answer> Sulfa allergy, PCN hypersensitiv- ity, Asthma, Gout
16. Systolic Murmurs (Benign):
3/
Answer> MR = Mitral Regurge (SOB/Fatigue14 HF) Peyton Manning =
Physiologic Murmur (Asymptomatic)
AS = Aortic Stenosis (Angina, Syncope HF)
MVP = Mitral Valve Prolapse ("Click", Women 14-30, Palpitations, Chest Pain
17. Diastolic Murmurs (Abnormal):
Answer> AR = Aortic Regurgitation (Angina, HF, Dizzi- ness, Chest Pain)
MS = Mitral Stenosis (Dyspnea, AFib)
18. What does S1 indicate
Answer> S1 Closure of the Atrioventricular Valves (Mitral & Tricuspid Valves)
4/
14
19. What does S2 indicate
Answer> S2 Closure of the Semilunar Valves (Aortic & Pulmonic
, 3Ps high stakes exam
22. Treatment of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD):
Answer> Antiplatelets (Plavix, ASA), Pentoxifylline (Decreases blood viscosity)
23. Diagnosing Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD):
Answer> Gold Standard = Angiography Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
24. Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) treatment: Aotrvastatin/Rosuvastatin = If
5/
LDL>150 use high doses. Watch for LFTs14 & arthralgia. Change type & dose if
issues. Helps stabilize plaques.
25. What medications are indicated for HF treatment
Answer> ACEs, ARBs, ARNI w/BBs, Aldosterone Recepter Antagonists
26. What is the treatment for Sarcopter Scabiei (Scabies)
Answer> Topical Permetherin massaged from head to soles of feet and wash off
with shower or bath after 8-14hrs. Treat again in 1 week.
27. Names of skin lesions
Answer> Macule: Flat <1cm i.e. freckle Papule: Raised <1cm
i.e. acne
Nodule: Raised >1cm i.e. lipoma
Vesicle: Blister <1cm i.e. HSV, Chickenpox
Bulla: Blister >1cm i.e. 2nd Degree Burn, Bullous Pemphigod
Plaque: Raised, flat-top >1cm i.e. Psoriasis & Seborrheic Keratoses
Patch: Flat, discolored >1cm i.e. Vitiligo & Port-Wine Stains
Wheal: Raised & Red Area i.e. Hives & Insect Bite reaction
28. Keloid: Hyperthrophic scar that is invasive beyond point of original injury
29. What is Tinea Capitis and What is the treatment
Answer> Scalp Ring-Worm. Round, scaly patches on scalp (C614 / radle Cap).
Treatment is Grisefulvin 500mg with high fat meals for 4-6weeks
30. What is Tinea Corporis and What is the treatment
Answer>
Body Ring-Worm. Red, scaly plaques on the body or trunk in a
APEA 3P High Stakes Study Guide Exam Contains Questions with
Verified Answers Passing Score Guarantee
1. What are the anti-hypertensives used in pregnancy
Answer> Methyldopa (Al- pha-2-Agonist), Labetalol, Nifedipine, Hydralazine
2. What is a characteristic of Placenta Previa
Answer> Painless, red bleeding
3. What is a chacteristic of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Answer> Tender, warm, swollen joints
4. Medications that can cause ototoxicity
Answer> Aminoglycosides, loop diuretics, 114NSAIDs, / antihistamines, nasal
decongestants
5. What is the treatment time for enterobiasis
Answer> 2 weeks
6. What would cause decrease in Digoxin levels
Answer> Antacids
7. Taking Pyridium for UTI, what can Pyridium cause
Answer> Hemolytic Anemia
8. What can PCOS result in
Answer> Increased insulin levels (Hyperinsulinemia), Andro- gens, Hirsutism
9. What does MCV lab value measure
Answer> Mean Corpuscular Volume helps diag- nose different types of anemia such
as B12 & Folate (Macrocytic) and Fe anemia (Microcytic)
10. Rhogam is given at how many week gestation
Answer> 27-28 weeks
11. What are Janeway lesions and what do 2 / they indicate
, 3Ps high stakes exam
Answer> They are split pea-sized, erythematous, tender nodules located on the
pads of the fingers and toes. Seen in Infective Endocarditis
13. What is the recommendation for Warfarin management when a patient
misses a dose
Answer> If within 12 hours of the dose time, take it. If over 12 hours patient will need
a INR redraw
14. What do we need to know about ACEs and ARBs
Answer> A dry hacking cough is a common side effect of ACEs and will go away
within a week after discontinuing. ACEs & ARBs are indicated for patients with
DM, CKD, and HTN. Not recommended as 1st line agent with African Americans
& can cause angioedema.
15. Contraindications for Hydrochlorothiazide:
Answer> Sulfa allergy, PCN hypersensitiv- ity, Asthma, Gout
16. Systolic Murmurs (Benign):
3/
Answer> MR = Mitral Regurge (SOB/Fatigue14 HF) Peyton Manning =
Physiologic Murmur (Asymptomatic)
AS = Aortic Stenosis (Angina, Syncope HF)
MVP = Mitral Valve Prolapse ("Click", Women 14-30, Palpitations, Chest Pain
17. Diastolic Murmurs (Abnormal):
Answer> AR = Aortic Regurgitation (Angina, HF, Dizzi- ness, Chest Pain)
MS = Mitral Stenosis (Dyspnea, AFib)
18. What does S1 indicate
Answer> S1 Closure of the Atrioventricular Valves (Mitral & Tricuspid Valves)
4/
14
19. What does S2 indicate
Answer> S2 Closure of the Semilunar Valves (Aortic & Pulmonic
, 3Ps high stakes exam
22. Treatment of Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD):
Answer> Antiplatelets (Plavix, ASA), Pentoxifylline (Decreases blood viscosity)
23. Diagnosing Peripheral Artery Disease (PAD):
Answer> Gold Standard = Angiography Ankle Brachial Index (ABI)
24. Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) treatment: Aotrvastatin/Rosuvastatin = If
5/
LDL>150 use high doses. Watch for LFTs14 & arthralgia. Change type & dose if
issues. Helps stabilize plaques.
25. What medications are indicated for HF treatment
Answer> ACEs, ARBs, ARNI w/BBs, Aldosterone Recepter Antagonists
26. What is the treatment for Sarcopter Scabiei (Scabies)
Answer> Topical Permetherin massaged from head to soles of feet and wash off
with shower or bath after 8-14hrs. Treat again in 1 week.
27. Names of skin lesions
Answer> Macule: Flat <1cm i.e. freckle Papule: Raised <1cm
i.e. acne
Nodule: Raised >1cm i.e. lipoma
Vesicle: Blister <1cm i.e. HSV, Chickenpox
Bulla: Blister >1cm i.e. 2nd Degree Burn, Bullous Pemphigod
Plaque: Raised, flat-top >1cm i.e. Psoriasis & Seborrheic Keratoses
Patch: Flat, discolored >1cm i.e. Vitiligo & Port-Wine Stains
Wheal: Raised & Red Area i.e. Hives & Insect Bite reaction
28. Keloid: Hyperthrophic scar that is invasive beyond point of original injury
29. What is Tinea Capitis and What is the treatment
Answer> Scalp Ring-Worm. Round, scaly patches on scalp (C614 / radle Cap).
Treatment is Grisefulvin 500mg with high fat meals for 4-6weeks
30. What is Tinea Corporis and What is the treatment
Answer>
Body Ring-Worm. Red, scaly plaques on the body or trunk in a
