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Speech language pathologist licensing examiners exam questions and verified answers

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A Speech-Language Pathologist (SLP) is a licensed healthcare professional who evaluates, diagnoses, and treats communication and swallowing disorders. These disorders can affect people of all ages — from infants with feeding difficulties to adults recovering from strokes or brain injuries. SLPs work with individuals who have challenges related to: Speech (articulation, fluency, voice) Language (understanding or using spoken and written language) Social communication (pragmatics, like taking turns in conversation) Cognitive-communication (memory, attention, problem-solving) Swallowing (dysphagia) They use a variety of evidence-based techniques to help clients improve their skills, often tailoring therapy plans to meet specific needs. SLPs work in diverse settings, including schools, hospitals, private practices, rehabilitation centers, and research institutions. In addition to direct therapy, they also collaborate with families, educators, and other healthcare professionals to support a person’s overall communication and quality of life.

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Institution
Speech Language Pathology
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Uploaded on
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Written in
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SPEECH LANGUAGE PATHOLOGIST LICENCING EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
PLUS CORRECT RATIONALE IN ITALICS.



1. Which of the following cranial nerves is primarily responsible for motor control of the
tongue?
A. CN VII (Facial)
B. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)
C. CN X (Vagus)
D. CN XII (Hypoglossal)
Correct rationale: CN XII (Hypoglossal) controls tongue movement, essential for articulation
and swallowing.

2. A child substitutes “wabbit” for “rabbit.” What type of phonological process is this?
A. Cluster reduction
B. Gliding
C. Fronting
D. Stopping
Correct rationale: Gliding occurs when liquids /r/ or /l/ are replaced by glides /w/ or /j/.

3. Which area of the brain is most associated with expressive language production?
A. Wernicke’s area
B. Broca’s area
C. Angular gyrus
D. Supramarginal gyrus
Correct rationale: Broca’s area, located in the left frontal lobe, controls expressive speech and
syntax formation.

4. In the traditional model of speech production, the source–filter theory describes:
A. Language comprehension
B. The acoustic process of speech
C. Muscle control in articulation
D. Speech sound perception
Correct rationale: The source–filter theory explains how the vocal folds (source) and vocal tract
(filter) shape speech sounds.

5. Which of the following assessments is used to evaluate swallowing function?
A. GFTA-3
B. CELF-5

,C. VFSS
D. PLS-5
Correct rationale: The Videofluoroscopic Swallow Study (VFSS) evaluates oral and pharyngeal
swallowing physiology.

6. The primary function of the velum during speech is to:
A. Vibrate for voicing
B. Close off the nasal cavity during oral sounds
C. Support tongue elevation
D. Control breath support
Correct rationale: The velum elevates to separate oral and nasal cavities during oral speech
production.

7. Which of the following disorders is characterized by difficulty with word finding?
A. Dysarthria
B. Apraxia of speech
C. Anomia
D. Stuttering
Correct rationale: Anomia involves difficulty retrieving words despite intact comprehension and
articulation.

8. When testing for hearing acuity, an SLP uses a pure-tone audiometer to identify:
A. Type of voice disorder
B. Degree and type of hearing loss
C. Language comprehension skills
D. Speech intelligibility
Correct rationale: A pure-tone audiometer measures hearing thresholds across frequencies,
indicating type and degree of hearing loss.

9. A child’s Mean Length of Utterance (MLU) measures:
A. Vocabulary diversity
B. Sentence complexity
C. Speech fluency
D. Phonological awareness
Correct rationale: MLU reflects syntactic development based on the average length of a child’s
spoken utterances.

10. Which of the following is a common feature of dysarthria?
A. Inconsistent articulation errors
B. Poor comprehension
C. Muscle weakness affecting speech
D. Word retrieval problems
Correct rationale: Dysarthria results from neuromuscular weakness leading to slurred or
imprecise articulation.

, 11. The main goal of augmentative and alternative communication (AAC) is to:
A. Replace verbal communication entirely
B. Support or supplement verbal expression
C. Train hearing sensitivity
D. Correct articulation errors
Correct rationale: AAC enhances or substitutes speech for individuals with limited verbal
output.

12. Which of the following is an example of a fluency disorder?
A. Lisp
B. Cluttering
C. Aphasia
D. Dysarthria
Correct rationale: Cluttering is a fluency disorder characterized by rapid, disorganized speech.

13. The pitch of a person’s voice is determined by:
A. Tongue position
B. Resonance cavity size
C. Frequency of vocal fold vibration
D. Air pressure in lungs
Correct rationale: Pitch depends on the rate of vibration of the vocal folds — faster vibration
means higher pitch.

14. Which test assesses receptive and expressive language abilities in school-age children?
A. PPVT-5
B. CELF-5
C. GFTA-3
D. RIPA-2
Correct rationale: CELF-5 (Clinical Evaluation of Language Fundamentals) assesses a wide
range of language skills in children.

15. Which speech sound is produced by a stop-plosive manner?
A. /s/
B. /t/
C. /m/
D. /l/
Correct rationale: /t/ is a stop-plosive produced by complete closure and sudden release of
airflow.

16. In stuttering modification therapy, the goal is to:
A. Eliminate all stuttering events
B. Desensitize and manage stuttering behaviors
C. Slow speech rate only
D. Punish disfluencies
Correct rationale: Stuttering modification focuses on reducing fear and controlling stuttering
moments, not eliminating them entirely.
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