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PRAXIS AUDIOLOGY EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS

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Praxis Audiology Practice Questions are designed to help audiology students and professionals prepare for the Praxis examination, a key step for certification and licensure in the field of audiology. These practice questions cover a wide range of topics, including hearing science, auditory anatomy and physiology, diagnostic assessment, amplification, rehabilitation, and professional ethics. By working through these questions, test-takers can assess their knowledge, identify areas for improvement, and build confidence to succeed on the actual exam.

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PRAXIS AUDIOLOGY EXAM-PRACTICE –QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2025/2026 Q&A
|INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF

1. Which of the following frequencies is most important for understanding speech
intelligibility?
A. 125 Hz
B. 500 Hz
C. 2000 Hz
D. 8000 Hz

Rationale: Speech intelligibility relies heavily on mid-frequency consonant sounds, particularly
around 2000 Hz. Lower frequencies provide loudness, while higher frequencies contribute to
clarity but not as critically as the mid-range.




2. Tympanometry measures which of the following?
A. Cochlear hair cell function
B. Middle ear compliance and pressure
C. Acoustic reflex decay
D. Auditory brainstem response

Rationale: Tympanometry is an objective test that measures middle ear mobility, ear canal
volume, and pressure. It does not assess cochlear or neural function directly.




3. Which cranial nerve is primarily tested during audiologic evaluation?
A. CN V (Trigeminal)
B. CN VII (Facial)

,C. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear)
D. CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)

Rationale: The auditory nerve is part of CN VIII, which carries sound and balance information
from the inner ear to the brain.




4. A child presents with recurrent otitis media with effusion. What tympanogram type is
expected?
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type As

Rationale: Middle ear effusion creates a flat (Type B) tympanogram due to fluid behind the
tympanic membrane.




5. Which test is most sensitive for detecting acoustic neuroma?
A. Otoacoustic emissions (OAE)
B. Pure-tone audiometry
C. Auditory brainstem response (ABR)
D. Tympanometry

Rationale: ABR is widely used as a screening tool for retrocochlear pathology such as acoustic
neuroma. MRI is confirmatory, but ABR detects abnormal wave latencies suggestive of tumor
presence.




6. In sensorineural hearing loss, which is true?
A. Bone conduction is normal, air conduction is abnormal
B. Both air and bone conduction are equally reduced
C. Air conduction is reduced, bone conduction is normal but with an air–bone gap
D. Tympanogram is always abnormal

, Rationale: In SNHL, both air and bone conduction thresholds are elevated equally, with no
significant air–bone gap. Tympanometry is usually normal.




7. Which part of the cochlea responds to high-frequency sounds?
A. Helicotrema
B. Base of the cochlea
C. Apex of the cochlea
D. Vestibule

Rationale: The cochlea is tonotopically organized—high frequencies stimulate the base, while
low frequencies stimulate the apex.




8. What is the primary goal of aural rehabilitation?
A. To restore normal hearing sensitivity
B. To maximize communication ability despite hearing loss
C. To prevent otitis media recurrence
D. To strengthen auditory nerve function

Rationale: Aural rehabilitation focuses on communication strategies, auditory training, and
assistive devices—not necessarily restoring normal hearing.




9. Which transducer is used for bone conduction testing?
A. Insert earphones
B. Supra-aural headphones
C. Bone oscillator
D. Loudspeaker

Rationale: Bone oscillators transmit vibration directly to the skull to test cochlear function
bypassing the outer and middle ear.

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