NRNP 6552 – Primary Care of Women’s Health | 100
Comprehensive Multiple-Choice Questions with
Answers & Rationales (Latest Exam Review Edition)
NRNP 6552 – Primary Care of Women’s
Health
Comprehensive Quiz Set | Part 1 (Questions 1–50)
Q1. A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular menses and hirsutism. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Endometriosis
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C. Premature ovarian failure
D. Hypothyroidism
Answer: B
Rationale: PCOS presents with oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea, hyperandrogenism (hirsutism,
acne), and polycystic ovaries.
Q2. The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in women of reproductive age is:
A. PCOS
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Pregnancy
D. Premature ovarian failure
Answer: C
Rationale: Always rule out pregnancy first when evaluating secondary amenorrhea.
,Q3. A 24-year-old sexually active woman requests STI screening. Which test is recommended?
A. Pap smear only
B. HIV and syphilis screening
C. Chlamydia and gonorrhea NAAT
D. Trichomonas wet mount
Answer: C
Rationale: CDC recommends annual NAAT for Chlamydia and Gonorrhea in sexually active
women <25 years old.
Q4. A 56-year-old woman has hot flashes and night sweats. What is the best first-line treatment?
A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
B. Gabapentin
C. Clonidine
D. SSRIs
Answer: A
Rationale: HRT is first-line for vasomotor symptoms in healthy, recently menopausal women
without contraindications.
Q5. A contraindication to combined oral contraceptives (COCs) is:
A. Age >35 and smoking
B. Migraine without aura
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Mild acne
Answer: A
Rationale: Women >35 who smoke are at increased risk of thromboembolic events when using
COCs.
Q6. The most appropriate initial imaging for a woman with a palpable breast mass is:
A. CT scan
B. Ultrasound
C. MRI
D. PET scan
Answer: B
Rationale: Ultrasound is first-line in women <30; mammogram is first-line in women ≥30.
, Q7. Which vaccine is recommended for all women through age 26 if not previously immunized?
A. Hepatitis B
B. HPV
C. Varicella
D. MMR
Answer: B
Rationale: HPV vaccine prevents cervical, vulvar, vaginal, and anal cancers and genital warts.
Q8. A pregnant woman at 10 weeks presents with vaginal bleeding and closed cervical os.
Diagnosis?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Inevitable abortion
C. Incomplete abortion
D. Complete abortion
Answer: A
Rationale: Threatened abortion = vaginal bleeding with closed cervix and viable pregnancy.
Q9. The best diagnostic test for bacterial vaginosis is:
A. Wet mount with clue cells
B. NAAT for gonorrhea
C. Cervical culture
D. KOH prep with hyphae
Answer: A
Rationale: BV is diagnosed by clue cells on wet prep, pH >4.5, positive whiff test, and thin
discharge.
Q10. Which of the following is a common side effect of Depo-Provera (DMPA)?
A. Weight loss
B. Bone mineral density loss
C. Increased fertility
D. Increased HDL
Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term DMPA use can reduce bone density; supplementation with
calcium/vitamin D is advised.
Comprehensive Multiple-Choice Questions with
Answers & Rationales (Latest Exam Review Edition)
NRNP 6552 – Primary Care of Women’s
Health
Comprehensive Quiz Set | Part 1 (Questions 1–50)
Q1. A 32-year-old woman presents with irregular menses and hirsutism. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Endometriosis
B. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
C. Premature ovarian failure
D. Hypothyroidism
Answer: B
Rationale: PCOS presents with oligomenorrhea/amenorrhea, hyperandrogenism (hirsutism,
acne), and polycystic ovaries.
Q2. The most common cause of secondary amenorrhea in women of reproductive age is:
A. PCOS
B. Hypothyroidism
C. Pregnancy
D. Premature ovarian failure
Answer: C
Rationale: Always rule out pregnancy first when evaluating secondary amenorrhea.
,Q3. A 24-year-old sexually active woman requests STI screening. Which test is recommended?
A. Pap smear only
B. HIV and syphilis screening
C. Chlamydia and gonorrhea NAAT
D. Trichomonas wet mount
Answer: C
Rationale: CDC recommends annual NAAT for Chlamydia and Gonorrhea in sexually active
women <25 years old.
Q4. A 56-year-old woman has hot flashes and night sweats. What is the best first-line treatment?
A. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
B. Gabapentin
C. Clonidine
D. SSRIs
Answer: A
Rationale: HRT is first-line for vasomotor symptoms in healthy, recently menopausal women
without contraindications.
Q5. A contraindication to combined oral contraceptives (COCs) is:
A. Age >35 and smoking
B. Migraine without aura
C. Dysmenorrhea
D. Mild acne
Answer: A
Rationale: Women >35 who smoke are at increased risk of thromboembolic events when using
COCs.
Q6. The most appropriate initial imaging for a woman with a palpable breast mass is:
A. CT scan
B. Ultrasound
C. MRI
D. PET scan
Answer: B
Rationale: Ultrasound is first-line in women <30; mammogram is first-line in women ≥30.
, Q7. Which vaccine is recommended for all women through age 26 if not previously immunized?
A. Hepatitis B
B. HPV
C. Varicella
D. MMR
Answer: B
Rationale: HPV vaccine prevents cervical, vulvar, vaginal, and anal cancers and genital warts.
Q8. A pregnant woman at 10 weeks presents with vaginal bleeding and closed cervical os.
Diagnosis?
A. Threatened abortion
B. Inevitable abortion
C. Incomplete abortion
D. Complete abortion
Answer: A
Rationale: Threatened abortion = vaginal bleeding with closed cervix and viable pregnancy.
Q9. The best diagnostic test for bacterial vaginosis is:
A. Wet mount with clue cells
B. NAAT for gonorrhea
C. Cervical culture
D. KOH prep with hyphae
Answer: A
Rationale: BV is diagnosed by clue cells on wet prep, pH >4.5, positive whiff test, and thin
discharge.
Q10. Which of the following is a common side effect of Depo-Provera (DMPA)?
A. Weight loss
B. Bone mineral density loss
C. Increased fertility
D. Increased HDL
Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term DMPA use can reduce bone density; supplementation with
calcium/vitamin D is advised.
