NR 601 Week 2 Quiz 2025| Chamberlain
University| Actual Exam Questions and
Correct Answers and Explanations
A nurse practitioner educates a 60-year-old female patient about increased furosemide,
explaining that with aging this medication:
A) Has reduced efficacy due to decreased renal function
B) Requires higher doses for effect
C) Is less likely to cause electrolyte imbalances
D) Does not require monitoring in older adults
Correct Answer: A) Has reduced efficacy due to decreased renal function
Explanation: Aging reduces renal function, decreasing furosemide clearance and efficacy,
requiring careful dose adjustments and monitoring for toxicity.
BNP/NT-proBNP testing has limitations in older adults for the detection of:
A) Heart failure
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A) Heart failure
Explanation: BNP/NT-proBNP levels are often elevated in older adults due to age-related
changes, reducing specificity for diagnosing heart failure.
Which vaccinations assist in the prevention of pulmonary disease exacerbation in adults? (Select
all that apply)
A) Influenza vaccine
B) Pneumococcal vaccine
C) Tdap vaccine
, D) HPV vaccine
Correct Answers: A, B
Explanation: Influenza and pneumococcal vaccines reduce the risk of respiratory infections that
exacerbate pulmonary diseases like COPD. Tdap and HPV are not directly related.
A nurse practitioner performs an ASCVD risk estimation and determines medication intervention
is needed. The most appropriate medication is:
A) Aspirin
B) Statin
C) Beta-blocker
D) ACE inhibitor
Correct Answer: B) Statin
Explanation: Statins are first-line for ASCVD risk reduction in high-risk patients, lowering LDL
cholesterol and cardiovascular events, per ACC/AHA guidelines.
A nurse practitioner calculates a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 6. The patient is at increased risk for:
A) Stroke
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Heart failure
D) Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: A) Stroke
Explanation: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 6 indicates high stroke risk in atrial fibrillation,
warranting anticoagulation.
A patient with moderate mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The
best medication management includes:
A) Beta-blocker and anticoagulant
B) Diuretic and antiplatelet
C) Calcium channel blocker and statin
D) Digoxin and ACE inhibitor
University| Actual Exam Questions and
Correct Answers and Explanations
A nurse practitioner educates a 60-year-old female patient about increased furosemide,
explaining that with aging this medication:
A) Has reduced efficacy due to decreased renal function
B) Requires higher doses for effect
C) Is less likely to cause electrolyte imbalances
D) Does not require monitoring in older adults
Correct Answer: A) Has reduced efficacy due to decreased renal function
Explanation: Aging reduces renal function, decreasing furosemide clearance and efficacy,
requiring careful dose adjustments and monitoring for toxicity.
BNP/NT-proBNP testing has limitations in older adults for the detection of:
A) Heart failure
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Pulmonary embolism
D) Atrial fibrillation
Correct Answer: A) Heart failure
Explanation: BNP/NT-proBNP levels are often elevated in older adults due to age-related
changes, reducing specificity for diagnosing heart failure.
Which vaccinations assist in the prevention of pulmonary disease exacerbation in adults? (Select
all that apply)
A) Influenza vaccine
B) Pneumococcal vaccine
C) Tdap vaccine
, D) HPV vaccine
Correct Answers: A, B
Explanation: Influenza and pneumococcal vaccines reduce the risk of respiratory infections that
exacerbate pulmonary diseases like COPD. Tdap and HPV are not directly related.
A nurse practitioner performs an ASCVD risk estimation and determines medication intervention
is needed. The most appropriate medication is:
A) Aspirin
B) Statin
C) Beta-blocker
D) ACE inhibitor
Correct Answer: B) Statin
Explanation: Statins are first-line for ASCVD risk reduction in high-risk patients, lowering LDL
cholesterol and cardiovascular events, per ACC/AHA guidelines.
A nurse practitioner calculates a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 6. The patient is at increased risk for:
A) Stroke
B) Myocardial infarction
C) Heart failure
D) Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: A) Stroke
Explanation: A CHA2DS2-VASc score of 6 indicates high stroke risk in atrial fibrillation,
warranting anticoagulation.
A patient with moderate mitral stenosis and atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. The
best medication management includes:
A) Beta-blocker and anticoagulant
B) Diuretic and antiplatelet
C) Calcium channel blocker and statin
D) Digoxin and ACE inhibitor
