2025 Walden University NURS 6512 advanced health
assessment final exam new latest version with all
questions, answers and rationale
1. What is the primary purpose of the review of systems in a health history?
A. Confirm a diagnosis
B. Identify symptoms across body systems
C. Order laboratory tests
D. Assess medication compliance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The review of systems systematically identifies symptoms across all body systems to
guide further assessment.
2. Which technique is used to assess for jugular venous pressure?
A. Palpation
B. Inspection
C. Auscultation
D. Percussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: JVP is assessed by inspecting the jugular vein with the patient at a 30–45-degree
angle.
3. A patient presents with sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. What condition should the
nurse suspect?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Angina
D. GERD
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain suggest pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening
condition requiring urgent evaluation.
4. What is the correct sequence for assessing heart sounds?
A. Auscultation, inspection, palpation
B. Inspection, palpation, auscultation
C. Palpation, auscultation, inspection
D. Auscultation, palpation, inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heart assessment follows inspection, palpation (PMI), then auscultation to evaluate
sounds systematically.
5. Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing eye movement?
A. Optic (II)
B. Oculomotor (III)
C. Trigeminal (V)
D. Facial (VII)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (III), along with IV and VI, controls extraocular movements.
6. True or False: A positive Romberg test indicates normal proprioception.
,A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Romberg test (swaying with eyes closed) suggests impaired proprioception
or cerebellar function.
7. Select all that apply: Which are included in a patient’s past medical history?
A. Surgeries
B. Allergies
C. Current medications
D. Occupational history
E. Chronic illnesses
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Past medical history includes surgeries, allergies, medications, and chronic illnesses;
occupational history is part of social history.
8. A patient has peripheral cyanosis. What should the nurse assess for?
A. Hypoxemia
B. Poor peripheral circulation
C. Anemia
D. Dehydration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peripheral cyanosis (e.g., in extremities) suggests reduced blood flow, as in peripheral
vascular disease.
9. Which sound is heard when percussing over a pleural effusion?
A. Resonance
B. Dullness
C. Hyperresonance
D. Tympany
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dullness is heard over a pleural effusion due to fluid accumulation in the pleural
space.
10. A patient reports difficulty speaking and swallowing. Which cranial nerve should be
assessed?
A. Facial (VII)
B. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
C. Hypoglossal (XII)
D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The glossopharyngeal (IX) and hypoglossal (XII) nerves control swallowing and
tongue movement, respectively.
11. What is the purpose of the heel-to-shin test?
A. Assess motor strength
B. Evaluate cerebellar coordination
C. Test sensory function
D. Check for reflexes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The heel-to-shin test assesses cerebellar function by evaluating smooth leg movement.
, 12. A patient has a positive Murphy’s sign. What condition is suspected?
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Hepatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Murphy’s sign (pain on inspiration with RUQ palpation) indicates gallbladder
inflammation.
13. Which technique is used to assess for costovertebral angle tenderness?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Percussion over the CVA assesses for renal tenderness, as in pyelonephritis.
14. A patient reports unintentional weight loss and fatigue. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Malignancy
D. Dehydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unintentional weight loss and fatigue are red flags for malignancy or chronic disease.
15. What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate at rest?
A. 8–12 breaths/min
B. 12–20 breaths/min
C. 20–28 breaths/min
D. 28–36 breaths/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute at rest.
16. True or False: A carotid bruit is a normal finding in young adults.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A carotid bruit suggests turbulent flow, often due to stenosis, and is not normal.
17. Select all that apply: Which are components of a neurological exam?
A. Cranial nerve testing
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Sensory testing
D. Blood pressure measurement
E. Coordination
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Neurological exams include cranial nerves, reflexes, sensory testing, and
coordination; blood pressure is cardiovascular.
18. A patient has a positive Rovsing’s sign. What condition is suspected?
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
assessment final exam new latest version with all
questions, answers and rationale
1. What is the primary purpose of the review of systems in a health history?
A. Confirm a diagnosis
B. Identify symptoms across body systems
C. Order laboratory tests
D. Assess medication compliance
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The review of systems systematically identifies symptoms across all body systems to
guide further assessment.
2. Which technique is used to assess for jugular venous pressure?
A. Palpation
B. Inspection
C. Auscultation
D. Percussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: JVP is assessed by inspecting the jugular vein with the patient at a 30–45-degree
angle.
3. A patient presents with sudden shortness of breath and chest pain. What condition should the
nurse suspect?
A. Pneumonia
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Angina
D. GERD
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Sudden dyspnea and chest pain suggest pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening
condition requiring urgent evaluation.
4. What is the correct sequence for assessing heart sounds?
A. Auscultation, inspection, palpation
B. Inspection, palpation, auscultation
C. Palpation, auscultation, inspection
D. Auscultation, palpation, inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Heart assessment follows inspection, palpation (PMI), then auscultation to evaluate
sounds systematically.
5. Which cranial nerve is assessed by testing eye movement?
A. Optic (II)
B. Oculomotor (III)
C. Trigeminal (V)
D. Facial (VII)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The oculomotor nerve (III), along with IV and VI, controls extraocular movements.
6. True or False: A positive Romberg test indicates normal proprioception.
,A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A positive Romberg test (swaying with eyes closed) suggests impaired proprioception
or cerebellar function.
7. Select all that apply: Which are included in a patient’s past medical history?
A. Surgeries
B. Allergies
C. Current medications
D. Occupational history
E. Chronic illnesses
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Past medical history includes surgeries, allergies, medications, and chronic illnesses;
occupational history is part of social history.
8. A patient has peripheral cyanosis. What should the nurse assess for?
A. Hypoxemia
B. Poor peripheral circulation
C. Anemia
D. Dehydration
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Peripheral cyanosis (e.g., in extremities) suggests reduced blood flow, as in peripheral
vascular disease.
9. Which sound is heard when percussing over a pleural effusion?
A. Resonance
B. Dullness
C. Hyperresonance
D. Tympany
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dullness is heard over a pleural effusion due to fluid accumulation in the pleural
space.
10. A patient reports difficulty speaking and swallowing. Which cranial nerve should be
assessed?
A. Facial (VII)
B. Glossopharyngeal (IX)
C. Hypoglossal (XII)
D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The glossopharyngeal (IX) and hypoglossal (XII) nerves control swallowing and
tongue movement, respectively.
11. What is the purpose of the heel-to-shin test?
A. Assess motor strength
B. Evaluate cerebellar coordination
C. Test sensory function
D. Check for reflexes
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The heel-to-shin test assesses cerebellar function by evaluating smooth leg movement.
, 12. A patient has a positive Murphy’s sign. What condition is suspected?
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
C. Pancreatitis
D. Hepatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Murphy’s sign (pain on inspiration with RUQ palpation) indicates gallbladder
inflammation.
13. Which technique is used to assess for costovertebral angle tenderness?
A. Palpation
B. Percussion
C. Auscultation
D. Inspection
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Percussion over the CVA assesses for renal tenderness, as in pyelonephritis.
14. A patient reports unintentional weight loss and fatigue. What should the nurse suspect?
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Malignancy
D. Dehydration
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unintentional weight loss and fatigue are red flags for malignancy or chronic disease.
15. What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate at rest?
A. 8–12 breaths/min
B. 12–20 breaths/min
C. 20–28 breaths/min
D. 28–36 breaths/min
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute at rest.
16. True or False: A carotid bruit is a normal finding in young adults.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A carotid bruit suggests turbulent flow, often due to stenosis, and is not normal.
17. Select all that apply: Which are components of a neurological exam?
A. Cranial nerve testing
B. Deep tendon reflexes
C. Sensory testing
D. Blood pressure measurement
E. Coordination
Correct Answers: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Neurological exams include cranial nerves, reflexes, sensory testing, and
coordination; blood pressure is cardiovascular.
18. A patient has a positive Rovsing’s sign. What condition is suspected?
A. Appendicitis
B. Cholecystitis
