A+ GRADED 1
Psychopathology and
Diagnostic Reasoning –
NRNP 6635, Walden
University, Final Exam
2025/2026 with Complete
Questions and Answers
Instructions
• Read each question carefully before selecting an answer.
• Choose the single best answer from the four options provided.
• Review the explanations after each question to enhance your
understanding.
• Use this exam as a tool to prepare for advanced psychopatholog
andSecti
diagnostic reasoning.
• Do not skip explanations—they are critical for mastering the
content.
, 2
Questions
1. A 28-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of low
mood, anhedonia, and difficulty concentrating. He denies
suicidal ideation but reports social withdrawal. Which
diagnosis is most likely based on DSM-5 criteria?
A. Bipolar II disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Persistent depressive disorder
D. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
Correct Answer: B. Major depressive disorder
Explanation: Per DSM-5, major depressive disorder (MDD) is
diagnosed with at least 5 symptoms, including depressed mood or
anhedonia, for at least 2 weeks. This patient’s 6-month history of
low mood, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, and social
withdrawal meets MDD criteria. Bipolar II requires hypomanic
episodes, which are absent. Persistent depressive disorder requires
symptoms for ≥2 years. Adjustment disorder requires a clear
stressor, which is not mentioned.
2. A 35-year-old female reports excessive worry about multiple
life aspects for 8 months, with muscle tension and sleep
disturbance. What is the first-line treatment per APA
guidelines?
A. Alprazolam
B. Sertraline
C. Buspirone
D. Hydroxyzine
, 3
Correct Answer: B. Sertraline
Explanation: Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is indicated by
excessive worry for ≥6 months with physical symptoms like
muscle tension. The 2025 APA guidelines recommend SSRIs, such
as sertraline, as first-line due to efficacy and safety. Alprazolam
and hydroxyzine are for acute anxiety, and buspirone is second-
line.
3. A 19-year-old college student exhibits disorganized speech,
auditory hallucinations, and paranoid delusions for 3 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Schizophreniform disorder
B. Brief psychotic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Delusional disorder
Correct Answer: A. Schizophreniform disorder
Explanation: Schizophreniform disorder is diagnosed when
schizophrenia-like symptoms (hallucinations, delusions,
disorganized speech) persist for 1–6 months. Schizophrenia
requires ≥6 months, brief psychotic disorder <1 month, and
delusional disorder lacks disorganized speech or hallucinations.
4. Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with bipolar I
disorder and a history of recent cocaine use?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Bupropion
D. Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: C. Bupropion
Explanation: Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and can
exacerbate stimulant-induced agitation or psychosis, making it
Psychopathology and
Diagnostic Reasoning –
NRNP 6635, Walden
University, Final Exam
2025/2026 with Complete
Questions and Answers
Instructions
• Read each question carefully before selecting an answer.
• Choose the single best answer from the four options provided.
• Review the explanations after each question to enhance your
understanding.
• Use this exam as a tool to prepare for advanced psychopatholog
andSecti
diagnostic reasoning.
• Do not skip explanations—they are critical for mastering the
content.
, 2
Questions
1. A 28-year-old male presents with a 6-month history of low
mood, anhedonia, and difficulty concentrating. He denies
suicidal ideation but reports social withdrawal. Which
diagnosis is most likely based on DSM-5 criteria?
A. Bipolar II disorder
B. Major depressive disorder
C. Persistent depressive disorder
D. Adjustment disorder with depressed mood
Correct Answer: B. Major depressive disorder
Explanation: Per DSM-5, major depressive disorder (MDD) is
diagnosed with at least 5 symptoms, including depressed mood or
anhedonia, for at least 2 weeks. This patient’s 6-month history of
low mood, anhedonia, difficulty concentrating, and social
withdrawal meets MDD criteria. Bipolar II requires hypomanic
episodes, which are absent. Persistent depressive disorder requires
symptoms for ≥2 years. Adjustment disorder requires a clear
stressor, which is not mentioned.
2. A 35-year-old female reports excessive worry about multiple
life aspects for 8 months, with muscle tension and sleep
disturbance. What is the first-line treatment per APA
guidelines?
A. Alprazolam
B. Sertraline
C. Buspirone
D. Hydroxyzine
, 3
Correct Answer: B. Sertraline
Explanation: Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is indicated by
excessive worry for ≥6 months with physical symptoms like
muscle tension. The 2025 APA guidelines recommend SSRIs, such
as sertraline, as first-line due to efficacy and safety. Alprazolam
and hydroxyzine are for acute anxiety, and buspirone is second-
line.
3. A 19-year-old college student exhibits disorganized speech,
auditory hallucinations, and paranoid delusions for 3 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Schizophreniform disorder
B. Brief psychotic disorder
C. Schizophrenia
D. Delusional disorder
Correct Answer: A. Schizophreniform disorder
Explanation: Schizophreniform disorder is diagnosed when
schizophrenia-like symptoms (hallucinations, delusions,
disorganized speech) persist for 1–6 months. Schizophrenia
requires ≥6 months, brief psychotic disorder <1 month, and
delusional disorder lacks disorganized speech or hallucinations.
4. Which medication is contraindicated in a patient with bipolar I
disorder and a history of recent cocaine use?
A. Lithium
B. Valproate
C. Bupropion
D. Lamotrigine
Correct Answer: C. Bupropion
Explanation: Bupropion lowers the seizure threshold and can
exacerbate stimulant-induced agitation or psychosis, making it
