NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam Review – Chamberlain University | 100+ Verified Questions & Correct Answers | Grade A | 2025 / 2026

NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam
Review – Chamberlain University –
2025/2026 | 100+ Verified Questions and
Correct Answers (Grade A)
The NR 565 Advanced Pharmacology Final Exam at Chamberlain University covers advanced
pharmacotherapeutics across body systems, drug classes, mechanisms, adverse effects,
interactions, and prescribing principles for nurse practitioners. This 2025/2026 review includes
129 verified questions (multiple-choice and select-all-that-apply) aligned with the latest
curriculum, Pharmacotherapeutics for Advanced Practice (Arcangelo et al., 5th ed., 2021),
Chamberlain resources, and NP practice guidelines. Each question is worth 5 points (total 645
points); aim for ≥80% (103/129 correct) for mastery. Answers are in blue, with concise
rationales for remediation. Focus on clinical applications, patient safety, and evidence-based
prescribing.



Question 1: What is the mechanism of action for beta-lactam antibiotics (e.g., Penicillin)?
Answer: Inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis
Rationale: Bind penicillin-binding proteins; bactericidal for Gram-positive organisms.



Question 2: Which adverse effect is associated with rapid Vancomycin infusion?
Answer: Red man syndrome
Rationale: Histamine release causes flushing, rash; slow infusion to prevent.



Question 3: Cephalosporins and alcohol may cause:
Answer: Disulfiram-like reaction
Rationale: Inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase; advise alcohol avoidance.



Question 4: Labs to monitor with Cephalosporins include: (Select all that apply)
Answer: BUN; Creatinine; ALT; AST
Rationale: Assess for nephrotoxicity and hepatotoxicity.

,Question 5: Penicillin G is the drug of choice for:
Answer: Syphilis
Rationale: Effective against Treponema pallidum; IM administration.



Question 6: Aminoglycosides (e.g., Gentamicin) require monitoring of:
Answer: Peak/trough levels and renal function
Rationale: Risk of ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity; once-daily dosing preferred.



Question 7: Tetracyclines are contraindicated in:
Answer: Children <8 years and pregnancy
Rationale: Tooth discoloration and teratogenic effects.



Question 8: Macrolides (e.g., Azithromycin) are indicated for:
Answer: Community-acquired pneumonia
Rationale: Inhibits protein synthesis; alternative for penicillin-allergic patients.



Question 9: Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for:
Answer: Tendon rupture
Rationale: Increased risk in elderly or with steroids; avoid in pediatrics.



Question 10: Sulfonamides (e.g., Bactrim) may cause:
Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Rationale: Severe hypersensitivity; monitor rash, stop drug if occurs.



Question 11: Vancomycin trough levels should be:
Answer: 10-20 mcg/mL
Rationale: Ensures efficacy, minimizes nephrotoxicity.



Question 12: Amphotericin B belongs to which antifungal class?
Answer: Polyenes
Rationale: Binds ergosterol; high nephrotoxicity risk.

, Question 13: Azoles (e.g., Fluconazole) inhibit:
Answer: Ergosterol synthesis
Rationale: Broad-spectrum; CYP450 interactions common.



Question 14: Echinocandins (e.g., Caspofungin) are used for:
Answer: Candida and Aspergillus infections
Rationale: Target fungal cell wall; IV only.



Question 15: Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (e.g., Zidovudine) are used for:
Answer: HIV
Rationale: Inhibit viral replication; part of HAART.



Question 16: Protease inhibitors (e.g., Ritonavir) cause:
Answer: Hyperlipidemia
Rationale: Monitor lipids; used as boosting agent.



Question 17: Integrase inhibitors (e.g., Raltegravir) prevent:
Answer: Viral DNA integration
Rationale: Key in HIV therapy; minimal side effects.



Question 18: Opioids (e.g., Morphine) act on:
Answer: Mu receptors
Rationale: Analgesia; risk of respiratory depression.



Question 19: Common opioid side effects include: (Select all that apply)
Answer: Constipation; Sedation; Nausea
Rationale: Mu-mediated; monitor respiratory status.