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DRT 1 latet review [study guide ] EXAM[questions and well prepared an swers]*

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DRT 1 latet review [study guide ] EXAM[questions and well prepared an swers]*

Institution
DRT 1
Course
DRT 1

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DRT 1 latet review [study guide ] EXAM[questions and well prepared an-
swers]*
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h94vzl

1. Which of the following steps comes first in the quality c. Delineating the scope of
assurance process? practice
a. Establishing thresholds for evaluation related to the
indicators
b. Collecting and organizing data
c. Delineating the scope of practice
d. Assessing the effectiveness of an action

2. Joy, a 30-year-old female, is worried about the "mood" c. Anhedonia --> dimin-
she has experienced for the past few weeks. She says ished pleasure in almost
she feels "really sad" nearly every day and wants to all activities
know if she is clinically depressed. Which of the follow-
ing findings is required to confirm the diagnosis?
a. Excessive guilt or feelings of worthlessness
b. Fatigue
c. Anhedonia --> diminished pleasure in almost all
activities
d. insomnia

3. During an annual exam, you notice a 12-year-old girl d. Onset of menses
with breast enlargement without separate nipple con-
tour. You tell her she can expect which of the following
next stage of her development?
a. Breast buds with areolar enlargement
b. Receding areolas and retracting nipples
c. Sparse, pale, fine pubic hair
d. Onset of menses

4. What Tanner stage is sparse, pale, fine pubic hair? Tanner stage II

5. Tanner stage II



, DRT 1 latet review [study guide ] EXAM[questions and well prepared an-
swers]*
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h94vzl
What Tanner stage is breast buds with areolar en-
largement?

6. What Tanner stage is breast enlargement without sep- Tanner stage III
arate nipple contour?

7. What Tanner stage is onset of menses and projection Tanner stage IV
of areola and nipple as secondary mound?

8. What Tanner stage is projection of areola and nipple Tanner stage IV
as secondary

9. What Tanner stage is receding areolas and retracting Tanner stage V --> men-
nipples? struation has already be-
gun

10. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of severe d. Nighttime awakenings
asthma in adults? 3-4 times per month
a. Symptoms throughout the day
b. Extreme limitations on normal activity
c. Predicted forced expiratory value in 1 s < 60%
d. Nighttime awakenings 3-4 times per month

11. An African American complains of being constantly a. 5 units of pack RBC
out of breath even in the absence of strenuous activi-
ty. He also noticed a sudden onset of severe pain in his
back and chest. He has a hemoglobin of 13g/dL. What
disease is this patient experiencing and which of the
following would be the LEAST appropriate treatment?
a. 5 units of pack RBC
b. Oxygen




, DRT 1 latet review [study guide ] EXAM[questions and well prepared an-
swers]*
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h94vzl
c. Intravenous fluids
d. Analgesics

12. A 54-year-old is being screened for HTN, a condition b. A subparietal headache
that runs in his family. Which of the following findings
is NOT consistent with a diagnosis of significant HTN?
a. Epistaxis
b. A subparietal headache
c. Blurred vision
d. A S4 heart sound

13. What type of headache is associated with HTN? a. Suboccipital
a. Suboccipital
b. Subparietal

14. What type of headache is associated with intracranial b. Subparietal
bleeding?
a. Suboccipital
b. Subparietal

15. What is an S4 heart sounds associated with? Left ventricular hypertro-
phy

16. An 8-month-old baby presents with bluish skin and a d. DiGeorge syndrome
cleft palate. The NP notes that the baby is twitching
around her mouth, as well as spasms in her hand and
arms. Her parents also report seizures. Upon further
observation, the NP learns that the baby is also devel-
opmentally delayed in many areas. Which of the fol-
lowing should be part of your differential diagnosis?
a. Marfan syndrome
b. Tay-Sachs disease


, DRT 1 latet review [study guide ] EXAM[questions and well prepared an-
swers]*
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_h94vzl
c. Turner syndrome
d. DiGeorge syndrome

17. What are characteristics of Tay-Sachs disease? Low muscle tone, seizures,
blindness, and deafness

18. What are characteristics of Marfan syndrome? Thin extremities and fin-
gers, and a long, narrow
face

19. What syndrome is characterized by lymphedema, Turner syndrome
short stature, and a webbed neck?

20. A patient presents with pain and pressure over his d. Antibiotics
face, reaching as far back as his teeth. He also has a S/S of sinusitis, but fever
fever of 102F, which he has been treating with rest and indicates bacterial infec-
fluids. When asked when these occurred, he states 3 tion
days ago. Which of the following is the most effect
treatment?
a. OTC antihistamines
b. Diazepam for the pain
c. OTC oral decongestants
d. Antibiotics

21. What best describes an I/VI murmur? Barely audible

22. What best describes an II/VI murmur? Audible but faint

23. What best describes an III/VI murmur? Moderately loud and eas-
ily heard

24. What best describes an IV/VI murmur? Sound is loud and is asso-
ciated with a thrill

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Institution
DRT 1
Course
DRT 1

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