2025 ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam – Actual
Questions with 100% Verified Answers & Expert
Rationales | Graded A+
Section 1: General Pharmacology and Nursing Implications
(15 Questions)
1. A nurse is administering phenobarbital to a client with a seizure disorder. The
medication has a half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse
expect to administer this medication?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: A. One
Rationale: Phenobarbital’s long half-life (4 days) allows it to maintain therapeutic levels
with once-daily dosing. More frequent dosing (B, C, D) is unnecessary and increases the
risk of adverse effects.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of
this medication?
A) Stimulates insulin release
B) Decreases hepatic glucose production
C) Increases glucagon secretion
D) Enhances carbohydrate absorption
Answer: B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
Rationale: Metformin primarily reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin
sensitivity. It does not stimulate insulin release (A), increase glucagon (C), or enhance
carbohydrate absorption (D).
3. (SATA) Which are nursing considerations when administering digoxin to a client
with heart failure?
A) Monitor heart rate before administration
B) Check serum potassium levels
C) Administer with food to avoid nausea
D) Assess for signs of toxicity
E) Encourage a high-potassium diet
Answers: A. Monitor heart rate, B. Check serum potassium levels, D. Assess for signs of
toxicity
Rationale: Digoxin requires monitoring heart rate (A) to avoid bradycardia, checking
potassium levels (B) as hypokalemia increases toxicity risk, and assessing for toxicity (D)
, (e.g., nausea, vision changes). Food administration (C) is not required, and dietary
potassium (E) depends on medical advice.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Have the client lie on their side
B) Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
C) Drop the medication on the cornea
D) Tell the client to blink after instillation
Answer: B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
Rationale: Looking up (B) prevents the medication from contacting the cornea, ensuring
proper distribution in the conjunctival sac. Lying on the side (A) is unnecessary, dropping
on the cornea (C) risks injury, and blinking (D) may expel the medication.
5. A client receiving warfarin reports bleeding gums. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer vitamin K
B) Notify the healthcare provider
C) Instruct the client to stop the medication
D) Check the client’s INR
Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Bleeding gums may indicate excessive anticoagulation. Notifying the
provider (B) is the priority to assess and adjust therapy. Administering vitamin K (A) or
stopping the medication (C) requires a provider’s order, and checking INR (D) is
secondary.
6. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Vitamin K
D) Digoxin immune Fab
Answer: B. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid overdose by antagonizing opioid receptors.
Flumazenil (A) is for benzodiazepines, vitamin K (C) for warfarin, and digoxin immune
Fab (D) for digoxin toxicity.
7. (SATA) Which are adverse effects of lisinopril?
A) Dry cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypotension
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Bradycardia
Answers: A. Dry cough, B. Hyperkalemia, C. Hypotension
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes dry cough (A), hyperkalemia
(B), and hypotension (C). Hypoglycemia (D) and bradycardia (E) are not typical adverse
effects.
8. A client is prescribed levothyroxine. What should the nurse include in client
education?
A) Take the medication at the same time daily
B) Stop the medication if side effects occur
C) Avoid thyroid function tests
D) Take with food to enhance absorption
Questions with 100% Verified Answers & Expert
Rationales | Graded A+
Section 1: General Pharmacology and Nursing Implications
(15 Questions)
1. A nurse is administering phenobarbital to a client with a seizure disorder. The
medication has a half-life of 4 days. How many times per day should the nurse
expect to administer this medication?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Answer: A. One
Rationale: Phenobarbital’s long half-life (4 days) allows it to maintain therapeutic levels
with once-daily dosing. More frequent dosing (B, C, D) is unnecessary and increases the
risk of adverse effects.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. What is the primary action of
this medication?
A) Stimulates insulin release
B) Decreases hepatic glucose production
C) Increases glucagon secretion
D) Enhances carbohydrate absorption
Answer: B. Decreases hepatic glucose production
Rationale: Metformin primarily reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin
sensitivity. It does not stimulate insulin release (A), increase glucagon (C), or enhance
carbohydrate absorption (D).
3. (SATA) Which are nursing considerations when administering digoxin to a client
with heart failure?
A) Monitor heart rate before administration
B) Check serum potassium levels
C) Administer with food to avoid nausea
D) Assess for signs of toxicity
E) Encourage a high-potassium diet
Answers: A. Monitor heart rate, B. Check serum potassium levels, D. Assess for signs of
toxicity
Rationale: Digoxin requires monitoring heart rate (A) to avoid bradycardia, checking
potassium levels (B) as hypokalemia increases toxicity risk, and assessing for toxicity (D)
, (e.g., nausea, vision changes). Food administration (C) is not required, and dietary
potassium (E) depends on medical advice.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer eye drops. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Have the client lie on their side
B) Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
C) Drop the medication on the cornea
D) Tell the client to blink after instillation
Answer: B. Ask the client to look up at the ceiling
Rationale: Looking up (B) prevents the medication from contacting the cornea, ensuring
proper distribution in the conjunctival sac. Lying on the side (A) is unnecessary, dropping
on the cornea (C) risks injury, and blinking (D) may expel the medication.
5. A client receiving warfarin reports bleeding gums. What should the nurse do first?
A) Administer vitamin K
B) Notify the healthcare provider
C) Instruct the client to stop the medication
D) Check the client’s INR
Answer: B. Notify the healthcare provider
Rationale: Bleeding gums may indicate excessive anticoagulation. Notifying the
provider (B) is the priority to assess and adjust therapy. Administering vitamin K (A) or
stopping the medication (C) requires a provider’s order, and checking INR (D) is
secondary.
6. What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A) Flumazenil
B) Naloxone
C) Vitamin K
D) Digoxin immune Fab
Answer: B. Naloxone
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid overdose by antagonizing opioid receptors.
Flumazenil (A) is for benzodiazepines, vitamin K (C) for warfarin, and digoxin immune
Fab (D) for digoxin toxicity.
7. (SATA) Which are adverse effects of lisinopril?
A) Dry cough
B) Hyperkalemia
C) Hypotension
D) Hypoglycemia
E) Bradycardia
Answers: A. Dry cough, B. Hyperkalemia, C. Hypotension
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes dry cough (A), hyperkalemia
(B), and hypotension (C). Hypoglycemia (D) and bradycardia (E) are not typical adverse
effects.
8. A client is prescribed levothyroxine. What should the nurse include in client
education?
A) Take the medication at the same time daily
B) Stop the medication if side effects occur
C) Avoid thyroid function tests
D) Take with food to enhance absorption
