NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank
NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank 2025-
2026 With Complete Verified Questions And
Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales
|Already Graded A+||Brand New Guaranteed
Pass
You are caring for a 14-month-old diagnosed with severe iron deficiency anemia. She is admitted
for a blood transfusion and is started on oral iron supplementation. When you change her
diaper, you note a dark black stool. What are the appropriate nursing actions?
Select ALL
A. Notify the healthcare provider.
B. Document the finding.
C. Continue with your assessment.
D. Administer the oral iron supplement as prescribed
- Correct Answer :Choices B, C, and D are correct.
B is correct. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. It is an appropriate
nursing action to document this finding in the chart, but no further action is needed.
C is correct. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. It is an appropriate
nursing action to continue with your assessment. Since the finding is expected, no other steps
are necessary.
D is correct. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. It is an appropriate
nursing action to administer the oral iron supplement as prescribed.
Choice A is incorrect. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. The nurse
doesn't need to notify the healthcare provider of this.
NCSBN Client Need Topic: Physiological Integrity, Subtopic: Pharmacological therapies, Pediatrics
Hematology
The nurse is re-educating on discharge instructions to a patient who has chronic diabetes
insipidus (DI). Which of the following patient statements would indicate a correct understanding
of the discharge instructions?
A. "I will need to drink no more than 800 ml per day."
B. "I will need to weigh myself at the same time every day."
C. "I should increase salty snacks in my diet."
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank
D. "I need to log my fluid intake and urine output."
- Correct Answer :Choice B is correct.
A patient with chronic diabetes insipidus (DI) is instructed to weigh themselves daily. This weight
should be taken with the same scale and obtained after the first-morning void.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid restrictions would be appropriate for a patient with
syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). This would not be appropriate for DI
as the patient will need to consume more fluids to replace those that are lost. Salty snacks are
not encouraged because this may hasten the hypernatremia associated with this disease.
Logging intake and output are not useful because this provides a crude way of assessing fluid
status.
This nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving prescribed ketorolac. Which of the following
findings would indicate a therapeutic response?
Select all that apply.
A. Decreased pain
B. Increased urinary output
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Decreased temperature
E. Increased muscle coordination
- Correct Answer :Choices A and D are correct
Ketorolac is a medication used to treat pain and pyrexia. A patient exhibiting a decrease in pain
and having a decrease in temperature would be a therapeutic response.
Choices B, C, and E are incorrect. Ketorolac does not therapeutically lower blood pressure,
increase urinary output, or increase muscle coordination. Medications that could be used to
lower blood pressure would be agents such as lisinopril, atenolol, etc. Agents used to increase
urinary output would be diuretics such as furosemide. The improvement in muscle coordination
may be achieved by medications such as levodopa-carbidopa.
Which nursing diagnosis would be the highest priority for a patient with a medical diagnosis of
Bell's palsy?
A. Risk for infection
B. Risk for disturbed sensory perception
C. Risk for disturbed body image
D. Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion
Choice B is correct.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank
Bell’s palsy causes acute facial paralysis or weakness in the muscles supplied by cranial nerve VII,
which can result in difficulty closing the eyelid, increased sound sensitivity, altered sense of
taste, difficulty chewing/swallowing, and pain.
Choice A is incorrect. Bell’s palsy may be caused by inflammation and viral infections, but the
patient would not be at a higher risk for developing an infection due to facial muscle weakness.
Choice C is incorrect. This patient would be at risk for disturbed body image, but this would be a
psychological nursing diagnosis and would not be a higher priority than disturbed sensory
perception.
Choice D is incorrect. Bell’s palsy would not put this patient at increased risk for impaired tissue
perfusion.
NCSBN Client Need Topic: Physiological Integrity, Subtopic: Basic Care and Comfort
The nurse is collecting data on a child with bilateral lower extremity chemical burns. The nurse
suspects that the child may have been abused. The nurse should take which initial action?
A. Cover the affected area with sterile dressing
B. Irrigate the affected area with saline
C. Report the suspected abuse
D. Document the findings
Choice B is correct.
A common mnemonic to remember is "the solution to pollution is dilution." When a client has
a chemical burn, the highest priority is to copiously irrigate it (dilute it) with saline or water.
Prompt irrigation of the area exposed to caustic substances ( acid, alkali) dilutes the chemical,
attempts to neutralize the pH change in the skin, and decreases the extent of the dermal injury.
Additionally, dilution lessens the risk of the caregiver getting burned by the chemical.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. All of these actions are appropriate, but the nurse should not
prioritize these actions over caring for the client's immediate physical needs ( applying Maslow's
hierarchy while answering priority questions, one should address the physical needs first). Before
suspected abuse should be reported ( Choice C), the nurse should stabilize the client. Irrigation
to decrease further damage to the client's integument is the highest priority with any chemical
burn.
The LPN is working on the pediatric floor caring for a 2-year-old who receiving 100% FiO2 via a
nasal cannula. At the end of her shift, the hospital receives a tornado warning. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to best protect her patient?
A. Clock out, her shift is over and she is not responsible.
B. Remove the nasal cannula and carry the child to a tornado shelter.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank
C. Move the patient as close to the interior of the room as possible.
D. Close all of the doors.
Choice C is correct.
During a tornado warning, the appropriate nursing action is to move patients away from
windows and as close to the interior of the room as they can safely be moved. This best protects
them in the event of a tornado.
Choice A is incorrect. It is inappropriate to clock out because her shift is over. The nurse will
always be responsible for the safety of her patients. This answer choice does not best protect
her patient.
Choice B is incorrect. It would never be appropriate to remove the nasal cannula. This could
result in serious harm and even death if the child is dependent on oxygen therapy. This answer
choice does not best protect the patient.
Choice D is incorrect. Closing all of the doors will not protect the patient during a tornado. This is
the appropriate action in the case of some fire events depending on the location of the fire, but
never for a tornado. This answer choice does not best protect the patient.
NCSBN Client Need Topic: Effective, safe care environment, Subtopic: Infection control and
safety; Pediatrics – Safety
The nurse is caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). It would be
appropriate for the nurse to assign the client to a room with the client diagnosed with
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. mycoplasma pneumonia.
C. gastroenteritis (rotavirus).
D. mumps (infectious parotitis).
Choice A is correct.
Infectious mononucleosis (IM) requires standard precautions. Disease transmission is spread by
prolonged exposure to human saliva and is difficult to spread. Often IM is referred to as the
'kissing disease' because prolonged kissing may transmit this pathogen. It is appropriate to place
a client with HIV in the same room as a client with IM. HIV requires standard precautions.
Choice B is incorrect. A client with mycoplasma pneumonia requires droplet precautions. It
would be inappropriate to place this client in the same room with a client with HIV because
there is a potential for disease transmission. A client with HIV requires standard precautions.
Choice C is incorrect. A client with rotavirus requires contact precautions. The nurse should not
place this client in the same room with a client with HIV. Rotavirus can be prevented through
childhood vaccination starting at two months of age.
A+ TEST BANK 4
NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank 2025-
2026 With Complete Verified Questions And
Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales
|Already Graded A+||Brand New Guaranteed
Pass
You are caring for a 14-month-old diagnosed with severe iron deficiency anemia. She is admitted
for a blood transfusion and is started on oral iron supplementation. When you change her
diaper, you note a dark black stool. What are the appropriate nursing actions?
Select ALL
A. Notify the healthcare provider.
B. Document the finding.
C. Continue with your assessment.
D. Administer the oral iron supplement as prescribed
- Correct Answer :Choices B, C, and D are correct.
B is correct. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. It is an appropriate
nursing action to document this finding in the chart, but no further action is needed.
C is correct. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. It is an appropriate
nursing action to continue with your assessment. Since the finding is expected, no other steps
are necessary.
D is correct. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. It is an appropriate
nursing action to administer the oral iron supplement as prescribed.
Choice A is incorrect. Black stools are an expected response to iron supplementation. The nurse
doesn't need to notify the healthcare provider of this.
NCSBN Client Need Topic: Physiological Integrity, Subtopic: Pharmacological therapies, Pediatrics
Hematology
The nurse is re-educating on discharge instructions to a patient who has chronic diabetes
insipidus (DI). Which of the following patient statements would indicate a correct understanding
of the discharge instructions?
A. "I will need to drink no more than 800 ml per day."
B. "I will need to weigh myself at the same time every day."
C. "I should increase salty snacks in my diet."
A+ TEST BANK 1
, NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank
D. "I need to log my fluid intake and urine output."
- Correct Answer :Choice B is correct.
A patient with chronic diabetes insipidus (DI) is instructed to weigh themselves daily. This weight
should be taken with the same scale and obtained after the first-morning void.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Fluid restrictions would be appropriate for a patient with
syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). This would not be appropriate for DI
as the patient will need to consume more fluids to replace those that are lost. Salty snacks are
not encouraged because this may hasten the hypernatremia associated with this disease.
Logging intake and output are not useful because this provides a crude way of assessing fluid
status.
This nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving prescribed ketorolac. Which of the following
findings would indicate a therapeutic response?
Select all that apply.
A. Decreased pain
B. Increased urinary output
C. Decreased blood pressure
D. Decreased temperature
E. Increased muscle coordination
- Correct Answer :Choices A and D are correct
Ketorolac is a medication used to treat pain and pyrexia. A patient exhibiting a decrease in pain
and having a decrease in temperature would be a therapeutic response.
Choices B, C, and E are incorrect. Ketorolac does not therapeutically lower blood pressure,
increase urinary output, or increase muscle coordination. Medications that could be used to
lower blood pressure would be agents such as lisinopril, atenolol, etc. Agents used to increase
urinary output would be diuretics such as furosemide. The improvement in muscle coordination
may be achieved by medications such as levodopa-carbidopa.
Which nursing diagnosis would be the highest priority for a patient with a medical diagnosis of
Bell's palsy?
A. Risk for infection
B. Risk for disturbed sensory perception
C. Risk for disturbed body image
D. Risk for ineffective tissue perfusion
Choice B is correct.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank
Bell’s palsy causes acute facial paralysis or weakness in the muscles supplied by cranial nerve VII,
which can result in difficulty closing the eyelid, increased sound sensitivity, altered sense of
taste, difficulty chewing/swallowing, and pain.
Choice A is incorrect. Bell’s palsy may be caused by inflammation and viral infections, but the
patient would not be at a higher risk for developing an infection due to facial muscle weakness.
Choice C is incorrect. This patient would be at risk for disturbed body image, but this would be a
psychological nursing diagnosis and would not be a higher priority than disturbed sensory
perception.
Choice D is incorrect. Bell’s palsy would not put this patient at increased risk for impaired tissue
perfusion.
NCSBN Client Need Topic: Physiological Integrity, Subtopic: Basic Care and Comfort
The nurse is collecting data on a child with bilateral lower extremity chemical burns. The nurse
suspects that the child may have been abused. The nurse should take which initial action?
A. Cover the affected area with sterile dressing
B. Irrigate the affected area with saline
C. Report the suspected abuse
D. Document the findings
Choice B is correct.
A common mnemonic to remember is "the solution to pollution is dilution." When a client has
a chemical burn, the highest priority is to copiously irrigate it (dilute it) with saline or water.
Prompt irrigation of the area exposed to caustic substances ( acid, alkali) dilutes the chemical,
attempts to neutralize the pH change in the skin, and decreases the extent of the dermal injury.
Additionally, dilution lessens the risk of the caregiver getting burned by the chemical.
Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. All of these actions are appropriate, but the nurse should not
prioritize these actions over caring for the client's immediate physical needs ( applying Maslow's
hierarchy while answering priority questions, one should address the physical needs first). Before
suspected abuse should be reported ( Choice C), the nurse should stabilize the client. Irrigation
to decrease further damage to the client's integument is the highest priority with any chemical
burn.
The LPN is working on the pediatric floor caring for a 2-year-old who receiving 100% FiO2 via a
nasal cannula. At the end of her shift, the hospital receives a tornado warning. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take to best protect her patient?
A. Clock out, her shift is over and she is not responsible.
B. Remove the nasal cannula and carry the child to a tornado shelter.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, NCLEX PN Actual Exam Test Bank
C. Move the patient as close to the interior of the room as possible.
D. Close all of the doors.
Choice C is correct.
During a tornado warning, the appropriate nursing action is to move patients away from
windows and as close to the interior of the room as they can safely be moved. This best protects
them in the event of a tornado.
Choice A is incorrect. It is inappropriate to clock out because her shift is over. The nurse will
always be responsible for the safety of her patients. This answer choice does not best protect
her patient.
Choice B is incorrect. It would never be appropriate to remove the nasal cannula. This could
result in serious harm and even death if the child is dependent on oxygen therapy. This answer
choice does not best protect the patient.
Choice D is incorrect. Closing all of the doors will not protect the patient during a tornado. This is
the appropriate action in the case of some fire events depending on the location of the fire, but
never for a tornado. This answer choice does not best protect the patient.
NCSBN Client Need Topic: Effective, safe care environment, Subtopic: Infection control and
safety; Pediatrics – Safety
The nurse is caring for a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). It would be
appropriate for the nurse to assign the client to a room with the client diagnosed with
A. infectious mononucleosis.
B. mycoplasma pneumonia.
C. gastroenteritis (rotavirus).
D. mumps (infectious parotitis).
Choice A is correct.
Infectious mononucleosis (IM) requires standard precautions. Disease transmission is spread by
prolonged exposure to human saliva and is difficult to spread. Often IM is referred to as the
'kissing disease' because prolonged kissing may transmit this pathogen. It is appropriate to place
a client with HIV in the same room as a client with IM. HIV requires standard precautions.
Choice B is incorrect. A client with mycoplasma pneumonia requires droplet precautions. It
would be inappropriate to place this client in the same room with a client with HIV because
there is a potential for disease transmission. A client with HIV requires standard precautions.
Choice C is incorrect. A client with rotavirus requires contact precautions. The nurse should not
place this client in the same room with a client with HIV. Rotavirus can be prevented through
childhood vaccination starting at two months of age.
A+ TEST BANK 4
