1|Page
NR507 Midterm Exam 2025:
Comprehensive Study Guide with Complete
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers for
Advanced Pathophysiology, Covering
Hypersensitivity Reactions, Renal
Disorders, and Immune-Mediated
Conditions
Which immunoglobulin is central to Type 1 hypersensitivity?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Answer: D) IgE -- type 1 reactions involve IgE binding to mast cells and basophils,
causing histamine release.
What clinical presentation is most associated with Type 1 hypersensitivity?
A) Hematuria
B) Rash 48 hours after contact
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: C) Type 1 reactions cause immediate symptoms like anaphylaxis due to
mast cell degranulation.
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Which mediator causes bronchoconstriction in allergic asthma?
A) Histamine
B) Leukotrienes
C) Dopamine
D) TSH
Answer: B) Leukotrienes are responsible for bronchoconstriction in type 1
hypersensitivity
Which diagnostic test confirms autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) ANA
B) Direct Coombs Test
C) RAST
D) ESR
Answer: B) The Direct Coombs Test detects IgG or complement on RBCs,
confirming hemolytic anemia.
What is a hallmark sign of Graves' disease?
A) Urticaria
B) Exophthalmos
C) Pallor
D) Petechiae
Answer: B) Graves' disease often causes eye protrusion due to immune-mediated
orbital inflammation.
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What differentiates Type II from Type III hypersensitivity?
A) T-cell involvement
B) Delayed response
C) Targeted of antibody binding (cell surface vs. circulating complex)
D) Mast cell degranulation
Answer: C) Type II involves antibodies binding to cell surfaces, while Type III
involves immune complexes depositing in tissues.
Contact dermatitis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Contact dermatitis is a delayed T-cell mediated response
Which immune cell is key in Type IV reactions?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Mast cells
D) Basophils
Answer: B) Type IV hypersensitivity is driven by T cell activation
Which condition is primarily a Type III hypersensitivity disorder?
, 4|Page
A) Graves' disease
B) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
C) Asthma
D) Contact Dermatitis
Answer: B) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) involves immune complex
deposition causing tissue damage.
What symptom is common in hemolytic anemia?
A) Weight gain
B) Bradycardia
C) Jaundice
D) Polyuria
Answer: C) Jaundice results from breakdown of hemoglobin in destroyed RBCs.
What causes symptoms in allergic rhinitis?
A) IgM and complement
B) T cell infiltration
C) Histamine from mast cells
D) Autoantibodies to epithelial tissue
Answer: C) Mast cell degranulation releases histamine, causing nasal symptoms.
What is the onset time of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
NR507 Midterm Exam 2025:
Comprehensive Study Guide with Complete
Questions and Correct Detailed Answers for
Advanced Pathophysiology, Covering
Hypersensitivity Reactions, Renal
Disorders, and Immune-Mediated
Conditions
Which immunoglobulin is central to Type 1 hypersensitivity?
A) IgG
B) IgM
C) IgA
D) IgE
Answer: D) IgE -- type 1 reactions involve IgE binding to mast cells and basophils,
causing histamine release.
What clinical presentation is most associated with Type 1 hypersensitivity?
A) Hematuria
B) Rash 48 hours after contact
C) Anaphylaxis
D) Hyperthyroidism
Answer: C) Type 1 reactions cause immediate symptoms like anaphylaxis due to
mast cell degranulation.
,2|Page
Which mediator causes bronchoconstriction in allergic asthma?
A) Histamine
B) Leukotrienes
C) Dopamine
D) TSH
Answer: B) Leukotrienes are responsible for bronchoconstriction in type 1
hypersensitivity
Which diagnostic test confirms autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
A) ANA
B) Direct Coombs Test
C) RAST
D) ESR
Answer: B) The Direct Coombs Test detects IgG or complement on RBCs,
confirming hemolytic anemia.
What is a hallmark sign of Graves' disease?
A) Urticaria
B) Exophthalmos
C) Pallor
D) Petechiae
Answer: B) Graves' disease often causes eye protrusion due to immune-mediated
orbital inflammation.
,3|Page
What differentiates Type II from Type III hypersensitivity?
A) T-cell involvement
B) Delayed response
C) Targeted of antibody binding (cell surface vs. circulating complex)
D) Mast cell degranulation
Answer: C) Type II involves antibodies binding to cell surfaces, while Type III
involves immune complexes depositing in tissues.
Contact dermatitis is an example of what type of hypersensitivity?
A) Type I
B) Type II
C) Type III
D) Type IV
Answer: D) Contact dermatitis is a delayed T-cell mediated response
Which immune cell is key in Type IV reactions?
A) B cells
B) T cells
C) Mast cells
D) Basophils
Answer: B) Type IV hypersensitivity is driven by T cell activation
Which condition is primarily a Type III hypersensitivity disorder?
, 4|Page
A) Graves' disease
B) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
C) Asthma
D) Contact Dermatitis
Answer: B) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE) involves immune complex
deposition causing tissue damage.
What symptom is common in hemolytic anemia?
A) Weight gain
B) Bradycardia
C) Jaundice
D) Polyuria
Answer: C) Jaundice results from breakdown of hemoglobin in destroyed RBCs.
What causes symptoms in allergic rhinitis?
A) IgM and complement
B) T cell infiltration
C) Histamine from mast cells
D) Autoantibodies to epithelial tissue
Answer: C) Mast cell degranulation releases histamine, causing nasal symptoms.
What is the onset time of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction?
