2025 ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored
Exam – 70 Actual Medication Safety
Questions with Verified Answers | A+
Graded
This comprehensive study guide is designed to help nursing students excel in the 2025 ATI RN
Pharmacology Proctored Exam, featuring 86 authentic ATI-style medication safety
questions with 100% verified answers and detailed rationales. Fully aligned with the
2025/2026 ATI Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) format, this resource ensures top
performance for nursing students ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam, NCLEX-RN
pharmacology review, or clinical nursing rotations. The questions cover critical topics such as
drug calculations, adverse effects, safe administration, patient education, and clinical judgment,
with real-world scenarios to sharpen medication safety skills.
Exam Information
• Time Limit: 90 minutes
• Total Questions: 86
• Topics Covered: Drug calculations, medication administration, adverse effects,
therapeutic outcomes, patient education, drug interactions, and lab monitoring
• Format: Multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), and case study questions aligned
with 2025/2026 ATI NGN standards
2025 ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Cardiovascular Medications (15 Questions)
1. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What is the priority teaching
point?
o A) Take with a high-fat meal
o B) Monitor for orthostatic hypotension
o C) Increase sodium intake
o D) Avoid potassium supplements
o Answer: B. Monitor for orthostatic hypotension
, o Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, causes vasodilation, which can lead to
orthostatic hypotension, especially when standing. Patients should be taught to
rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
2. A client is prescribed heparin 5000 units IV bolus. The vial is 10,000 units/mL. How
many mL should the nurse administer?
o A) 0.2 mL
o B) 0.5 mL
o C) 1 mL
o D) 2 mL
o Answer: B. 0.5 mL
o Rationale: Dose = 5000 units ÷ 10,000 units/mL = 0.5 mL, per ATI calculation
standards.
3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the therapeutic INR
range?
o A) 1.0–1.5
o B) 2.0–3.0
o C) 3.5–4.5
o D) 5.0–6.0
o Answer: B. 2.0–3.0
o Rationale: The therapeutic INR range for atrial fibrillation is 2.0–3.0 to prevent
thromboembolism, per AHA and ATI guidelines.
4. Which symptoms indicate digoxin toxicity? (Select All That Apply)
o A) Nausea
o B) Bradycardia
o C) Visual disturbances
o D) Hypertension
o E) Confusion
o Answers: A, B, C, E
o Rationale: Digoxin toxicity manifests as nausea, bradycardia, visual disturbances
(e.g., yellow halos), and confusion. Hypertension is not typical.
5. A client is receiving a nitroglycerin drip for angina. What is the nurse’s priority
monitoring parameter?
o A) Blood glucose
o B) Blood pressure
o C) Respiratory rate
o D) Temperature
o Answer: B. Blood pressure
o Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, requiring blood pressure monitoring
to prevent hypotension.
6. A client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. The vial is 10 mg/mL. How many mL
should the nurse administer?
o A) 2 mL
o B) 3 mL
o C) 4 mL
o D) 5 mL
o Answer: C. 4 mL
, o Rationale: Dose = 40 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 4 mL, per ATI calculation standards.
7. A client with heart failure reports dizziness when standing. What medication is
likely responsible?
o A) Metoprolol
o B) Digoxin
o C) Enalapril
o D) Atorvastatin
o Answer: C. Enalapril
o Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, causes vasodilation, leading to orthostatic
hypotension and dizziness.
8. What is the nurse’s priority action for a client with a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
on digoxin?
o A) Administer digoxin as ordered
o B) Notify the provider immediately
o C) Encourage potassium-rich foods
o D) Increase digoxin dose
o Answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
o Rationale: Hypokalemia (2.8 mEq/L) increases digoxin toxicity risk, requiring
provider notification to adjust therapy.
9. A nurse is administering atenolol to a client. Which adverse effect should the nurse
monitor for?
o A) Hyperglycemia
o B) Bradycardia
o C) Hyperkalemia
o D) Tachycardia
o Answer: B. Bradycardia
o Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, slows heart rate, and bradycardia is a
common adverse effect.
10. A client is prescribed spironolactone for hypertension. Which dietary instruction
should the nurse include?
o A) Increase potassium-rich foods
o B) Restrict potassium-rich foods
o C) Avoid high-fiber foods
o D) Limit fluid intake
o Answer: B. Restrict potassium-rich foods
o Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia,
so potassium-rich foods should be limited.
11. A client receiving nitroglycerin patches should be instructed to:
o A) Apply the patch to the same site daily
o B) Remove the patch after 12–14 hours
o C) Cut the patch to adjust dosage
o D) Apply over hairy skin
o Answer: B. Remove the patch after 12–14 hours
o Rationale: Nitroglycerin patches are removed after 12–14 hours to prevent
tolerance, applied to hairless skin, and never cut.
Exam – 70 Actual Medication Safety
Questions with Verified Answers | A+
Graded
This comprehensive study guide is designed to help nursing students excel in the 2025 ATI RN
Pharmacology Proctored Exam, featuring 86 authentic ATI-style medication safety
questions with 100% verified answers and detailed rationales. Fully aligned with the
2025/2026 ATI Next Generation NCLEX (NGN) format, this resource ensures top
performance for nursing students ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam, NCLEX-RN
pharmacology review, or clinical nursing rotations. The questions cover critical topics such as
drug calculations, adverse effects, safe administration, patient education, and clinical judgment,
with real-world scenarios to sharpen medication safety skills.
Exam Information
• Time Limit: 90 minutes
• Total Questions: 86
• Topics Covered: Drug calculations, medication administration, adverse effects,
therapeutic outcomes, patient education, drug interactions, and lab monitoring
• Format: Multiple-choice, select-all-that-apply (SATA), and case study questions aligned
with 2025/2026 ATI NGN standards
2025 ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Cardiovascular Medications (15 Questions)
1. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What is the priority teaching
point?
o A) Take with a high-fat meal
o B) Monitor for orthostatic hypotension
o C) Increase sodium intake
o D) Avoid potassium supplements
o Answer: B. Monitor for orthostatic hypotension
, o Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, causes vasodilation, which can lead to
orthostatic hypotension, especially when standing. Patients should be taught to
rise slowly to prevent dizziness.
2. A client is prescribed heparin 5000 units IV bolus. The vial is 10,000 units/mL. How
many mL should the nurse administer?
o A) 0.2 mL
o B) 0.5 mL
o C) 1 mL
o D) 2 mL
o Answer: B. 0.5 mL
o Rationale: Dose = 5000 units ÷ 10,000 units/mL = 0.5 mL, per ATI calculation
standards.
3. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the therapeutic INR
range?
o A) 1.0–1.5
o B) 2.0–3.0
o C) 3.5–4.5
o D) 5.0–6.0
o Answer: B. 2.0–3.0
o Rationale: The therapeutic INR range for atrial fibrillation is 2.0–3.0 to prevent
thromboembolism, per AHA and ATI guidelines.
4. Which symptoms indicate digoxin toxicity? (Select All That Apply)
o A) Nausea
o B) Bradycardia
o C) Visual disturbances
o D) Hypertension
o E) Confusion
o Answers: A, B, C, E
o Rationale: Digoxin toxicity manifests as nausea, bradycardia, visual disturbances
(e.g., yellow halos), and confusion. Hypertension is not typical.
5. A client is receiving a nitroglycerin drip for angina. What is the nurse’s priority
monitoring parameter?
o A) Blood glucose
o B) Blood pressure
o C) Respiratory rate
o D) Temperature
o Answer: B. Blood pressure
o Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation, requiring blood pressure monitoring
to prevent hypotension.
6. A client is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. The vial is 10 mg/mL. How many mL
should the nurse administer?
o A) 2 mL
o B) 3 mL
o C) 4 mL
o D) 5 mL
o Answer: C. 4 mL
, o Rationale: Dose = 40 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 4 mL, per ATI calculation standards.
7. A client with heart failure reports dizziness when standing. What medication is
likely responsible?
o A) Metoprolol
o B) Digoxin
o C) Enalapril
o D) Atorvastatin
o Answer: C. Enalapril
o Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, causes vasodilation, leading to orthostatic
hypotension and dizziness.
8. What is the nurse’s priority action for a client with a potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
on digoxin?
o A) Administer digoxin as ordered
o B) Notify the provider immediately
o C) Encourage potassium-rich foods
o D) Increase digoxin dose
o Answer: B. Notify the provider immediately
o Rationale: Hypokalemia (2.8 mEq/L) increases digoxin toxicity risk, requiring
provider notification to adjust therapy.
9. A nurse is administering atenolol to a client. Which adverse effect should the nurse
monitor for?
o A) Hyperglycemia
o B) Bradycardia
o C) Hyperkalemia
o D) Tachycardia
o Answer: B. Bradycardia
o Rationale: Atenolol, a beta-blocker, slows heart rate, and bradycardia is a
common adverse effect.
10. A client is prescribed spironolactone for hypertension. Which dietary instruction
should the nurse include?
o A) Increase potassium-rich foods
o B) Restrict potassium-rich foods
o C) Avoid high-fiber foods
o D) Limit fluid intake
o Answer: B. Restrict potassium-rich foods
o Rationale: Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia,
so potassium-rich foods should be limited.
11. A client receiving nitroglycerin patches should be instructed to:
o A) Apply the patch to the same site daily
o B) Remove the patch after 12–14 hours
o C) Cut the patch to adjust dosage
o D) Apply over hairy skin
o Answer: B. Remove the patch after 12–14 hours
o Rationale: Nitroglycerin patches are removed after 12–14 hours to prevent
tolerance, applied to hairless skin, and never cut.
