EMD V13.0A RECERTIFICATION EXAM OUTEC QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
GRADED A+
Question 1
A second-party caller reports that a 45-year-old female has been bitten by a snake. The snake is
now dead and the patient is alert with no difficulty breathing or swallowing. What is the most
appropriate Determinant Code?
A) 2-A-1
B) 2-C-2
C) 2-D-3
D) 2-D-4
E) 2-E-1
Correct Answer: D) 2-D-4
Rationale: This code is appropriate for a snakebite case where the patient is not in
immediate danger (alert, no breathing problems), which fits the DELTA-level response
criteria for this Chief Complaint.
Question 2
An effective quality improvement program for emergency dispatch must include case review,
regular feedback to dispatchers, and which other critical component?
A) Punitive actions for protocol deviations
B) Annual recertification testing
C) Continuing dispatch education (CDE)
D) Mandatory overtime for skill practice
E) Peer-to-peer call grading
Correct Answer: C) Continuing dispatch education (CDE)
Rationale: Continuous education is essential for maintaining and improving skills,
reinforcing protocol standards, and addressing performance issues identified during case
review and feedback.
Question 3
In the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS), words or phrases that have a specific,
protocol-defined meaning are visually marked using:
A) italics
,B) quotation marks
C) bolded text
D) an asterisk (*)
E) all uppercase text (all capital letters)
Correct Answer: E) all uppercase text (all capital letters)
Rationale: The use of all uppercase text is the standard MPDS convention to alert the EMD
that a word or phrase has a precise definition within the protocol that must be understood
and applied correctly.
Question 4
Which of the following lists correctly identifies the four Priority Symptoms that are critical to
identify during Case Entry?
A) abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of consciousness, and
SERIOUS hemorrhage
B) difficulty speaking, chest pain/discomfort (any), unconsciousness, and any bleeding
C) agonal breathing, cardiac history, fainting, and bleeding from the head
D) abnormal breathing, SERIOUS hemorrhage, severe pain, and dizziness
E) shortness of breath, chest pain, confusion, and uncontrolled bleeding
Correct Answer: A) abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of
consciousness, and SERIOUS hemorrhage
Rationale: This is the precise list of the four Priority Symptoms as defined by the MPDS.
Identifying any of these symptoms early in the call is crucial for accurate response
assignment.
Question 5
An alert, 34-year-old, first-party caller reports chest pain. Key Questioning reveals slight
difficulty breathing, clammy skin, and no history of heart problems. He can speak normally
between breaths. What is the most appropriate Determinant Code?
A) 10-C-1
B) 10-D-2
C) 10-D-4
D) 10-E-1
,E) 10-A-1
Correct Answer: C) 10-D-4
Rationale: This DELTA-level code is used for chest pain cases with signs of a potential heart
attack (clammy skin, breathing difficulty) in a patient without an equivalent history,
indicating a high-priority response is needed.
Question 6
When an EMD uses the MPDS to assign a Determinant Code, the actual response configuration
(e.g., which units are sent) and the emergency mode (e.g., lights-and-siren) are predetermined by
whom?
A) The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED)
B) The on-duty dispatch supervisor
C) The individual EMD's discretion
D) The responding paramedic crew
E) local Medical Control and EMS Administration
Correct Answer: E) local Medical Control and EMS Administration
Rationale: The MPDS provides a standardized code, but the specific local response plan for
that code is defined and approved by the local medical and administrative authorities.
Question 7
When using the Stroke Diagnostic Tool, the caller reports a slight facial droop (uneven smile)
and one arm drifting lower than the other, but the patient is able to say "The early bird catches
the worm" correctly. This combination of findings should be considered:
A) inconclusive evidence of stroke
B) WEAK evidence of stroke
C) an indicator of a TIA, not a stroke
D) STRONG evidence of stroke
E) definitive proof of a diabetic event
Correct Answer: D) STRONG evidence of stroke
Rationale: The MPDS Stroke Diagnostic Tool is designed so that a positive finding in either
the facial droop or arm drift test constitutes STRONG evidence of a stroke, even if the
speech test is normal.
, Question 8
Which of the following is the best medical definition for the term "cervical cerclage"?
A) A medication used to stop premature labor contractions.
B) A surgical procedure meant to prevent premature dilation of the cervix and, therefore,
premature labor
C) The medical term for the removal of the placenta after birth.
D) A diagnostic test to determine if a pregnant patient's water has broken.
E) A type of Cesarean section used in high-risk pregnancies.
Correct Answer: B) A surgical procedure meant to prevent premature dilation of the cervix
and, therefore, premature labor
Rationale: This is the correct definition. It is a stitch placed around the cervix to keep it
closed and support the pregnancy, which is important information in a pregnancy-related
call.
Question 9
A second-party caller reports his 85-year-old sister feels her heart is beating "way too fast." The
patient is confirmed to be awake and breathing effectively during Case Entry. Which Chief
Complaint Protocol should you go to immediately after completing Case Entry?
A) Protocol 6: Breathing Problems
B) Protocol 10: Chest Pain
C) Protocol 26: Sick Person (Specific Diagnosis)
D) Protocol 31: Unconscious/Fainting (Near)
E) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
Correct Answer: E) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
Rationale: The caller's primary complaint is a heart-related issue ("beating way too fast").
Protocol 19 is specifically designed to handle complaints of heart problems in conscious
patients.
Question 10
A caller reports her 42-year-old husband is having a seizure. During Case Entry, she states he is
not awake and not breathing, but the seizure activity is ongoing. What is the most appropriate
Chief Complaint Protocol to use for this case?
GRADED A+
Question 1
A second-party caller reports that a 45-year-old female has been bitten by a snake. The snake is
now dead and the patient is alert with no difficulty breathing or swallowing. What is the most
appropriate Determinant Code?
A) 2-A-1
B) 2-C-2
C) 2-D-3
D) 2-D-4
E) 2-E-1
Correct Answer: D) 2-D-4
Rationale: This code is appropriate for a snakebite case where the patient is not in
immediate danger (alert, no breathing problems), which fits the DELTA-level response
criteria for this Chief Complaint.
Question 2
An effective quality improvement program for emergency dispatch must include case review,
regular feedback to dispatchers, and which other critical component?
A) Punitive actions for protocol deviations
B) Annual recertification testing
C) Continuing dispatch education (CDE)
D) Mandatory overtime for skill practice
E) Peer-to-peer call grading
Correct Answer: C) Continuing dispatch education (CDE)
Rationale: Continuous education is essential for maintaining and improving skills,
reinforcing protocol standards, and addressing performance issues identified during case
review and feedback.
Question 3
In the Medical Priority Dispatch System (MPDS), words or phrases that have a specific,
protocol-defined meaning are visually marked using:
A) italics
,B) quotation marks
C) bolded text
D) an asterisk (*)
E) all uppercase text (all capital letters)
Correct Answer: E) all uppercase text (all capital letters)
Rationale: The use of all uppercase text is the standard MPDS convention to alert the EMD
that a word or phrase has a precise definition within the protocol that must be understood
and applied correctly.
Question 4
Which of the following lists correctly identifies the four Priority Symptoms that are critical to
identify during Case Entry?
A) abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of consciousness, and
SERIOUS hemorrhage
B) difficulty speaking, chest pain/discomfort (any), unconsciousness, and any bleeding
C) agonal breathing, cardiac history, fainting, and bleeding from the head
D) abnormal breathing, SERIOUS hemorrhage, severe pain, and dizziness
E) shortness of breath, chest pain, confusion, and uncontrolled bleeding
Correct Answer: A) abnormal breathing, chest pain/discomfort (any), decreased level of
consciousness, and SERIOUS hemorrhage
Rationale: This is the precise list of the four Priority Symptoms as defined by the MPDS.
Identifying any of these symptoms early in the call is crucial for accurate response
assignment.
Question 5
An alert, 34-year-old, first-party caller reports chest pain. Key Questioning reveals slight
difficulty breathing, clammy skin, and no history of heart problems. He can speak normally
between breaths. What is the most appropriate Determinant Code?
A) 10-C-1
B) 10-D-2
C) 10-D-4
D) 10-E-1
,E) 10-A-1
Correct Answer: C) 10-D-4
Rationale: This DELTA-level code is used for chest pain cases with signs of a potential heart
attack (clammy skin, breathing difficulty) in a patient without an equivalent history,
indicating a high-priority response is needed.
Question 6
When an EMD uses the MPDS to assign a Determinant Code, the actual response configuration
(e.g., which units are sent) and the emergency mode (e.g., lights-and-siren) are predetermined by
whom?
A) The International Academies of Emergency Dispatch (IAED)
B) The on-duty dispatch supervisor
C) The individual EMD's discretion
D) The responding paramedic crew
E) local Medical Control and EMS Administration
Correct Answer: E) local Medical Control and EMS Administration
Rationale: The MPDS provides a standardized code, but the specific local response plan for
that code is defined and approved by the local medical and administrative authorities.
Question 7
When using the Stroke Diagnostic Tool, the caller reports a slight facial droop (uneven smile)
and one arm drifting lower than the other, but the patient is able to say "The early bird catches
the worm" correctly. This combination of findings should be considered:
A) inconclusive evidence of stroke
B) WEAK evidence of stroke
C) an indicator of a TIA, not a stroke
D) STRONG evidence of stroke
E) definitive proof of a diabetic event
Correct Answer: D) STRONG evidence of stroke
Rationale: The MPDS Stroke Diagnostic Tool is designed so that a positive finding in either
the facial droop or arm drift test constitutes STRONG evidence of a stroke, even if the
speech test is normal.
, Question 8
Which of the following is the best medical definition for the term "cervical cerclage"?
A) A medication used to stop premature labor contractions.
B) A surgical procedure meant to prevent premature dilation of the cervix and, therefore,
premature labor
C) The medical term for the removal of the placenta after birth.
D) A diagnostic test to determine if a pregnant patient's water has broken.
E) A type of Cesarean section used in high-risk pregnancies.
Correct Answer: B) A surgical procedure meant to prevent premature dilation of the cervix
and, therefore, premature labor
Rationale: This is the correct definition. It is a stitch placed around the cervix to keep it
closed and support the pregnancy, which is important information in a pregnancy-related
call.
Question 9
A second-party caller reports his 85-year-old sister feels her heart is beating "way too fast." The
patient is confirmed to be awake and breathing effectively during Case Entry. Which Chief
Complaint Protocol should you go to immediately after completing Case Entry?
A) Protocol 6: Breathing Problems
B) Protocol 10: Chest Pain
C) Protocol 26: Sick Person (Specific Diagnosis)
D) Protocol 31: Unconscious/Fainting (Near)
E) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
Correct Answer: E) Protocol 19: Heart Problems/A.I.C.D
Rationale: The caller's primary complaint is a heart-related issue ("beating way too fast").
Protocol 19 is specifically designed to handle complaints of heart problems in conscious
patients.
Question 10
A caller reports her 42-year-old husband is having a seizure. During Case Entry, she states he is
not awake and not breathing, but the seizure activity is ongoing. What is the most appropriate
Chief Complaint Protocol to use for this case?
