Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam
Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam 2
Verified Questions and Answers with
Detailed Rationales |
100% Verified Answers (50 Qs - 6 or 7
SATA; 3 or 4 Dose Calc;-Trinity)
A 45-year-old patient presents with a deep partial-thickness laceration on the lateral aspect of
the arm resulting from a traumatic injury. The wound extends through the epidermis and into
the deeper dermis but does not involve tendon or bone. Which of the following is the MOST
appropriate dressing to promote optimal healing of this wound?
A- Dry sterile gauze dressing
B- Transparent semipermeable film dressing
C- Moist occlusive non-adherent foam dressing
D- Alginate dressing
Correct Answer:
- Moist occlusive non-adherent foam dressing
Rationale:
Deep partial-thickness wounds require a moist healing environment to promote re-
epithelialization and prevent desiccation of the wound bed. A moist occlusive non-adherent
foam dressing is designed to maintain this environment, absorb moderate exudate, and
protect the new tissue from trauma during dressing changes
A nurse is caring for a patient with a postoperative wound that is expected to have minimal
serosanguineous drainage. During a routine assessment, the nurse notes that the wound is
now producing thick, yellow-green, malodorous drainage. Which of the following should the
nurse do next?
A- Document the finding as normal postoperative serosanguineous drainage.
B- Apply an additional sterile dressing and reassess in two hours.
C- Notify the provider immediately, as the purulent discharge may indicate an infection.
D- Increase the frequency of wound irrigation to clear the drainage
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, Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam
Correct Answer:
Notify the provider immediately, as the purulent discharge may indicate an infection.
Rationale:Thick, yellow-green, malodorous drainage is indicative of purulent discharge, which
is an abnormal finding. Purulent drainage suggests bacterial infection at the wound site and
necessitates prompt notification of the provider. Options A, B, and D are not appropriate
because they fail to address the potential infection, which could compromise healing and lead
to further complications
A patient with type I diabetes has a stage II pressure injury on the sacrum. The wound shows
partial-thickness loss of skin with a pink wound bed and minimal serous drainage. In the
handoff report for the next shift, which piece of information is MOST important for the nurse
to monitor due to its impact on wound healing?
A- The wound is scheduled for dressing changes every 72 hours if no signs of infection
develop.
B- The wound is a stage II pressure injury, and poor glycemic control may delay healing and
increase the risk of infection.
C- The patient is to be placed on a high-protein diet to support tissue repair.
D- The patient is encouraged to perform daily repositioning and use a pressure-relieving
mattress
Correct Answer:
B- The wound is a stage II pressure injury, and poor glycemic control may delay healing and
increase the risk of infection.
Rationale:
For a patient with type I diabetes, controlled blood glucose levels are critical to wound
healing. The nurse must be alert for any signs that poor glycemic control is compromising the
healing process—such as increased inflammation, worsening drainage, or a change in the
wound's appearance—since elevated blood sugars can exacerbate tissue damage and
predispose the wound to infection. While regular dressing changes (A), a high-protein diet (C),
and repositioning (D) are all important components of wound care, the most critical piece of
information for this patient is the relationship between blood glucose control and the risk of
infection and delayed healing of a stage II pressure injury
A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a patient to evaluate the integrity of the
visual fields using a confrontation test. Which of the following describes the correct method
for performing the test?
A- Stand approximately 5 feet from the patient, cover one of the patient's eyes, and slowly
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, Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam
move your finger from the periphery toward the center while the patient indicates when they
first see it.
B- Have the patient close both eyes, then rapidly shine a light in various directions to assess
the pupillary light reflex.
C- Instruct the patient to read from a Snellen chart with one eye covered, while you observe
for any misread letters.
D- Ask the patient to follow your moving finger without covering either eye and note the
smoothness of eye tracking
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The confrontation test is performed by standing about 5 feet away from the patient, using
one eye at a time. The nurse covers one eye of the patient and moves a finger from the
periphery toward the center of the visual field. The patient is instructed to say when the
finger is first seen, which effectively screens for any defects in the peripheral vision typically
associated with optic nerve (CN II) impairments. Options B, C, and D describe techniques used
for different types of visual assessments and are not specific to the confrontation test
A 62-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department
complaining of severe eye pain, blurred vision with halos around lights, and nausea. On
assessment, the nurse notes that the affected eye is red, the cornea appears cloudy, and the
pupil is mid-dilated and poorly reactive to light. Which of the following findings is most
indicative of narrow-angle glaucoma?
A- Bilateral loss of peripheral vision
B- A mid-dilated, fixed pupil with corneal edema
C- A constricted pupil with a clear cornea
D- Minimal ocular discomfort with normal intraocular pressure
Correct Answer:
B- A mid-dilated, fixed pupil with corneal edema
Rationale:
Narrow-angle (or angle-closure) glaucoma is characterized by a sudden increase in intraocular
pressure due to blockage of aqueous humor outflow. This leads to symptoms such as severe
eye pain, blurred vision with halos, headache, and nausea. On examination, the affected eye
often has a mid-dilated, fixed pupil, corneal edema resulting in a cloudy appearance, and
conjunctival redness. These signs distinguish it from open-angle glaucoma (which typically
presents with gradual, bilateral peripheral vision loss) and other conditions with less dramatic
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, Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam
anterior chamber involvement. Options A, C, and D do not present the classic acute findings
associated with narrow-angle glaucoma
A 68-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing increased joint pain and
stiffness, making it difficult to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) such as dressing,
bathing, and grooming. Which nursing intervention is MOST effective in promoting the
patient's independence and safe participation in ADLs?
A- Instruct the patient to pace activities and use available assistive devices or adaptive
equipment.
B- Advise the patient to limit all physical activity and have the nursing staff perform ADLs.
C- Suggest the patient avoid using any equipment to encourage natural joint movement.
D- Recommend extended bedrest during symptom flare-ups to minimize joint pain
Correct Answer: A
- Instruct the patient to pace activities and use available assistive devices or adaptive
equipment.
Rationale:
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis often have decreased joint mobility and pain that can
interfere with ADLs. Encouraging the patient to pace activities, use assistive devices (such as
long-handled tools or dressing aids), and employ energy conservation techniques allows for
safer performance of ADLs and helps maintain independence. Options B and D promote
dependency and inactivity, which can lead to further deconditioning and loss of function,
while Option C neglects the benefits that adaptive equipment can provide in mitigating joint
strain and enhancing mobility
A 72-year-old patient with left hemiplegia following an ischemic stroke is admitted to
rehabilitation. The nurse's goal is to prevent further mobility complications, including
contractures and pressure injuries, in the affected left extremity. Which intervention is MOST
effective in promoting mobility and preventing complications?
A- Immobilize the left extremity in a fixed brace throughout the day to protect it from
movement.
B- Encourage the patient to perform active-assisted range-of-motion exercises as tolerated
and reposition every 2 hours.
C- Limit physical activity to reduce fatigue, ensuring complete bed rest and minimal
movement of the affected limb.
D- Provide only passive range-of-motion exercises, as the patient's left side is nonfunctional
Correct Answer: B
- Encourage the patient to perform active-assisted range-of-motion exercises as tolerated and
A+ 4
Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam 2
Verified Questions and Answers with
Detailed Rationales |
100% Verified Answers (50 Qs - 6 or 7
SATA; 3 or 4 Dose Calc;-Trinity)
A 45-year-old patient presents with a deep partial-thickness laceration on the lateral aspect of
the arm resulting from a traumatic injury. The wound extends through the epidermis and into
the deeper dermis but does not involve tendon or bone. Which of the following is the MOST
appropriate dressing to promote optimal healing of this wound?
A- Dry sterile gauze dressing
B- Transparent semipermeable film dressing
C- Moist occlusive non-adherent foam dressing
D- Alginate dressing
Correct Answer:
- Moist occlusive non-adherent foam dressing
Rationale:
Deep partial-thickness wounds require a moist healing environment to promote re-
epithelialization and prevent desiccation of the wound bed. A moist occlusive non-adherent
foam dressing is designed to maintain this environment, absorb moderate exudate, and
protect the new tissue from trauma during dressing changes
A nurse is caring for a patient with a postoperative wound that is expected to have minimal
serosanguineous drainage. During a routine assessment, the nurse notes that the wound is
now producing thick, yellow-green, malodorous drainage. Which of the following should the
nurse do next?
A- Document the finding as normal postoperative serosanguineous drainage.
B- Apply an additional sterile dressing and reassess in two hours.
C- Notify the provider immediately, as the purulent discharge may indicate an infection.
D- Increase the frequency of wound irrigation to clear the drainage
A+ 1
, Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam
Correct Answer:
Notify the provider immediately, as the purulent discharge may indicate an infection.
Rationale:Thick, yellow-green, malodorous drainage is indicative of purulent discharge, which
is an abnormal finding. Purulent drainage suggests bacterial infection at the wound site and
necessitates prompt notification of the provider. Options A, B, and D are not appropriate
because they fail to address the potential infection, which could compromise healing and lead
to further complications
A patient with type I diabetes has a stage II pressure injury on the sacrum. The wound shows
partial-thickness loss of skin with a pink wound bed and minimal serous drainage. In the
handoff report for the next shift, which piece of information is MOST important for the nurse
to monitor due to its impact on wound healing?
A- The wound is scheduled for dressing changes every 72 hours if no signs of infection
develop.
B- The wound is a stage II pressure injury, and poor glycemic control may delay healing and
increase the risk of infection.
C- The patient is to be placed on a high-protein diet to support tissue repair.
D- The patient is encouraged to perform daily repositioning and use a pressure-relieving
mattress
Correct Answer:
B- The wound is a stage II pressure injury, and poor glycemic control may delay healing and
increase the risk of infection.
Rationale:
For a patient with type I diabetes, controlled blood glucose levels are critical to wound
healing. The nurse must be alert for any signs that poor glycemic control is compromising the
healing process—such as increased inflammation, worsening drainage, or a change in the
wound's appearance—since elevated blood sugars can exacerbate tissue damage and
predispose the wound to infection. While regular dressing changes (A), a high-protein diet (C),
and repositioning (D) are all important components of wound care, the most critical piece of
information for this patient is the relationship between blood glucose control and the risk of
infection and delayed healing of a stage II pressure injury
A nurse is performing a neurological assessment on a patient to evaluate the integrity of the
visual fields using a confrontation test. Which of the following describes the correct method
for performing the test?
A- Stand approximately 5 feet from the patient, cover one of the patient's eyes, and slowly
A+ 2
, Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam
move your finger from the periphery toward the center while the patient indicates when they
first see it.
B- Have the patient close both eyes, then rapidly shine a light in various directions to assess
the pupillary light reflex.
C- Instruct the patient to read from a Snellen chart with one eye covered, while you observe
for any misread letters.
D- Ask the patient to follow your moving finger without covering either eye and note the
smoothness of eye tracking
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The confrontation test is performed by standing about 5 feet away from the patient, using
one eye at a time. The nurse covers one eye of the patient and moves a finger from the
periphery toward the center of the visual field. The patient is instructed to say when the
finger is first seen, which effectively screens for any defects in the peripheral vision typically
associated with optic nerve (CN II) impairments. Options B, C, and D describe techniques used
for different types of visual assessments and are not specific to the confrontation test
A 62-year-old patient with a history of hypertension presents to the emergency department
complaining of severe eye pain, blurred vision with halos around lights, and nausea. On
assessment, the nurse notes that the affected eye is red, the cornea appears cloudy, and the
pupil is mid-dilated and poorly reactive to light. Which of the following findings is most
indicative of narrow-angle glaucoma?
A- Bilateral loss of peripheral vision
B- A mid-dilated, fixed pupil with corneal edema
C- A constricted pupil with a clear cornea
D- Minimal ocular discomfort with normal intraocular pressure
Correct Answer:
B- A mid-dilated, fixed pupil with corneal edema
Rationale:
Narrow-angle (or angle-closure) glaucoma is characterized by a sudden increase in intraocular
pressure due to blockage of aqueous humor outflow. This leads to symptoms such as severe
eye pain, blurred vision with halos, headache, and nausea. On examination, the affected eye
often has a mid-dilated, fixed pupil, corneal edema resulting in a cloudy appearance, and
conjunctival redness. These signs distinguish it from open-angle glaucoma (which typically
presents with gradual, bilateral peripheral vision loss) and other conditions with less dramatic
A+ 3
, Rasmussen College MDC 4 Exam
anterior chamber involvement. Options A, C, and D do not present the classic acute findings
associated with narrow-angle glaucoma
A 68-year-old patient with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing increased joint pain and
stiffness, making it difficult to perform activities of daily living (ADLs) such as dressing,
bathing, and grooming. Which nursing intervention is MOST effective in promoting the
patient's independence and safe participation in ADLs?
A- Instruct the patient to pace activities and use available assistive devices or adaptive
equipment.
B- Advise the patient to limit all physical activity and have the nursing staff perform ADLs.
C- Suggest the patient avoid using any equipment to encourage natural joint movement.
D- Recommend extended bedrest during symptom flare-ups to minimize joint pain
Correct Answer: A
- Instruct the patient to pace activities and use available assistive devices or adaptive
equipment.
Rationale:
Patients with rheumatoid arthritis often have decreased joint mobility and pain that can
interfere with ADLs. Encouraging the patient to pace activities, use assistive devices (such as
long-handled tools or dressing aids), and employ energy conservation techniques allows for
safer performance of ADLs and helps maintain independence. Options B and D promote
dependency and inactivity, which can lead to further deconditioning and loss of function,
while Option C neglects the benefits that adaptive equipment can provide in mitigating joint
strain and enhancing mobility
A 72-year-old patient with left hemiplegia following an ischemic stroke is admitted to
rehabilitation. The nurse's goal is to prevent further mobility complications, including
contractures and pressure injuries, in the affected left extremity. Which intervention is MOST
effective in promoting mobility and preventing complications?
A- Immobilize the left extremity in a fixed brace throughout the day to protect it from
movement.
B- Encourage the patient to perform active-assisted range-of-motion exercises as tolerated
and reposition every 2 hours.
C- Limit physical activity to reduce fatigue, ensuring complete bed rest and minimal
movement of the affected limb.
D- Provide only passive range-of-motion exercises, as the patient's left side is nonfunctional
Correct Answer: B
- Encourage the patient to perform active-assisted range-of-motion exercises as tolerated and
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