COMPLETE EXAM |WITH ACCURATE QUESTIONS AND
VERIFIED ANSWERS|GRADED A
A 32-year-old woman meets with the nurse on her first official visit
since undergoing a left mastectomy. When asked how she is doing, the
woman states her appetite is still not good, she is not getting much sleep
because she doesn't go to bed until her husband is asleep, and she is
really anxious to get back to work. Which of the following nursing
interventions should the nurse explore to support the client's current
needs?
a) Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her
mastectomy
b) Suggest that the client learn relaxation techniques to help with her
insomnia
c) Call the physician to discuss allowing the client to return to work
earlier
d) Perform a nutritional assessment to assess for anorexia Ans✓✓✓ a)
Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues related to her
mastectomy
- Correct Answer: A. Ask open-ended questions about sexuality issues
related to her mastectomy
Option A: The content of the client's comments suggests that she is
avoiding intimacy with her husband by waiting until he is asleep before
going to bed. Addressing sexuality issues is appropriate for a client who
has undergone a mastectomy.
Option B: Suggesting that she learn relaxation techniques to help her
with her insomnia is appropriate; however, the nurse must first address
the psychosocial and sexual issues that are contributing to her sleeping
difficulties.
,Option C: Rushing her return to work may debilitate her and add to her
exhaustion.
Option D: A nutritional assessment may be useful, but there is no
indication that she has anorexia.
One of the most serious blood coagulation complications for individuals
with cancer and for those undergoing cancer treatments is disseminated
intravascular coagulation (DIC). The most common cause of this
bleeding disorder is:
a) Brain metastasis
b) Sepsis
c) Intravenous heparin therapy
d) underlying liver disease Ans✓✓✓ b) Sepsis
- Correct Answer: B. Sepsis
Option B: Bacterial endotoxins released from gram-negative bacteria
activate the Hageman factor or coagulation factor XII. This factor
inhibits coagulation via the intrinsic pathway of homeostasis, as well as
stimulating fibrinolysis.
Option D: Liver disease can cause multiple bleeding abnormalities
resulting in chronic, subclinical DIC; however, sepsis is the most
common cause.
A pneumonectomy is a surgical procedure sometimes indicated for the
treatment of non-small-cell lung cancer. A pneumonectomy involves
removal of:
a) One lobe of a lung
,b) An entire lung field
c) One or more segments of a lung lobe
d) A small, wedge-shaped lung surface Ans✓✓✓ b) An entire lung field
- Correct Answer: B. An entire lung field
Option B: A pneumonectomy is the removal of an entire lung field
indicated for the treatment of non-small cell lung cancer that has not
spread outside of the lung tissue. It is performed on patients who will
have adequate lung function in the unaffected lung.
Option D: A wedge resection refers to the removal of a wedge-shaped
section of lung tissue. It may be used to remove a tumor and a small
amount of normal tissue around it/
Option A: A lobectomy is the removal of one lobe.
Option C: Removal of one or more segments of a lung lobe is called a
partial lobectomy.
A 36-year-old man with lymphoma presents with signs of impending
septic shock 9 days after chemotherapy. The nurse would expect which
of the following to be present?
a) low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia
b) Elevated temperature, oliguria, hypotension
c) Flushing, decreased oxygen saturation, mild hypotension
d) High-grade fever, normal blood pressure, increased respirations
Ans✓✓✓ a) low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia
- Correct Answer: A. Low-grade fever, chills, tachycardia
Option A: Nine days after chemotherapy, one would expect the client to
be immunocompromised. The clinical signs of shock reflect changes in
, cardiac function, vascular resistance, cellular metabolism, and capillary
permeability. Low-grade fever, tachycardia, and flushing may be early
signs of shock.
Option B: Oliguria and hypotension are late signs of shock. Urine output
can be initially normal or increased.
Options C and D: The client with impending signs of septic shock may
not have decreased oxygen saturation levels and normal blood pressure.
Which of the following represents the most appropriate nursing
intervention for a client with pruritus caused by cancer or the
treatments?
a) Silk sheets
b) Steroids
c) Medicated cool baths
d) Administration of antihistamines Ans✓✓✓ c) Medicated cool baths
- Correct Answer: C. Medicated cool baths
Option C: Nursing interventions to decrease the discomfort of pruritus
include those that prevent vasodilation, decrease anxiety, and maintain
skin integrity and hydration. Medicated baths with salicylic acid or
colloidal oatmeal can be soothing as a temporary relief.
Option A: Using silk sheets is not a practical intervention for the
hospitalized client with pruritus.
Options B and D: The use of antihistamines or topical steroids depends
on the cause of pruritus, and these agents should be used with caution.