1|Page
NGN ATI LEADERSHIP PROCTORED EXAM 2025/2026 TEST
BANK – 2 VERSIONS | COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | ACTUAL EXAM Qs | EXPERT VERIFIED STUDY
GUIDE | GUARANTEED PASS || AWARDED A+ ||
A physical therapist is treating a patient with iontophoresis. If the current is
set at 4 mA, the duration at 15 minutes, and the dexamethasone
(Decadron) solution at 0.04%, with an electrode area of 4 cm2, how should
the therapist record the current dosage in the patient's chart?
A. 0.16 mA-mg
B. 16 mA/cm2 4
C. 0.60 mg/min
D. 60 mA-min - ANSWER-D. 60 mA-min
The current dosage for iontophoresis is calculated by multiplying the
current (4 mA) by the duration (15 minutes).
During pregnancy, which of the following exercises is
CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Curl-ups
B. Bridging
C. Double leg lifts
D. Deep breathing with forced expiration - ANSWER-C. Double leg lifts
Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal muscles
and cause damage to spinal joints.
A target heart rate is determined for individuals entering a training program
in order to:
A. regulate exercise intensity.
,2|Page
B. estimate energy expenditure
C. control blood pressure at a specific heart rate.
D. ensure that participants exercise at maximal capacity. - ANSWER-A.
regulate exercise intensity.
utilizing a target heart rate will ensure that the appropriate exercise
intensity is being achieved.
For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOST appropriate
physical therapy goal is:
A. prevention of contractures and determination of the best method of
mobility
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone.
C. inhibition of abnormal muscle tone and facilitation of normal movement
and postural reactions
D. facilitation of normal movement and improvement of strength. -
ANSWER-A. prevention of contractures and determination of the best
method of mobility
Goals of PT intervention for a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy are
to retard the development of contracture and muscle weakness, which
could lead to functional limitations, and thus, disability.
Outcomes of a prenatal exercise program would NOT include
A. improved body mechanics.
B. application of relaxation techniques.
C. improved ligamentous flexibility.
D. strengthened pelvic-floor musculature - ANSWER-C. improved
ligamentous flexibility.
Additional stretching of the ligaments could result in joint instability or injury,
and would not be a goal of treatment.
A patient has limited ankle dorsiflexion following open reduction and
internal fixation of the distal tibia. Radiographs reveal that the fracture is
well healed. Treatment with passive mobilization should include:
A. posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
,3|Page
B. lateral glide of the calcaneus on the tibia.
C. posterior glide of the tibia on the talus.
D. anterior glide of the talus on the tibia. - ANSWER-A. posterior glide of
the talus on the tibia.
To facilitate the movement of dorsiflexion one would need to perform a
posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
A patient who has recently and successfully completed a 12-week program
of Phase III cardiac rehabilitation will MOST likely demonstrate a decrease
in:
A. carbon dioxide elimination in maximal work
B. cardiac output in maximal work.
C. stroke volume at a given level of submaximal work.
D. heart rate at a given level of submaximal work. - ANSWER-D. heart rate
at a given level of submaximal work.
Aerobic conditioning that occurs during the 12 weeks of cardiac
rehabilitation will result in a decrease in heart rate both at rest and with
exercise.
CO2 elimination and cardiac output would both increase with maximal
work.
The stroke volume would increase during submaximal work.
The intervention for a patient who has right sciatic pain caused by piriformis
compression should NOT include:
A. instruction in mild self-stretching in sitting with the right hip and knee
flexed and pressure applied in the medial direction to the distal thigh with
the left upper extremity.
B. contract-relax exercises to the hip external rotators performed with the
patient sidelying on the left and the right hip and knee positioned in 90° of
flexion
C. active resistive strengthening exercises to the piriformis with the patient
prone and the knee flexed.
, 4|Page
D. application of cold to the area of sciatic nerve irritability. - ANSWER-C.
active resistive strengthening exercises to the piriformis with the patient
prone and the knee flexed.
Passive internal rotation and resisted external rotation may be painful.
A physical therapist examining wrist-joint play finds restriction in the
direction indicated by the arrow. To address the restriction, the therapist
should include an intervention to increase which motion of the index finger
(2nd digit)?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Rotation - ANSWER-A. Flexion
The therapist is shown performing a volar glide, which is the same, joint
motion used for finger flexion. Limited motion in this direction indicates
limited ability to perform finger flexion.
An elderly patient presents with a sacral pressure ulcer measuring 6 in x 6
in (15 cm x 15 cm). The wound has moderate serous fluid drainage and is
loosely covered with necrotic and fibrotic tissue, although there are no
indications of infection present. The BEST method of debridement is:
A. daily vigorous scrubbing of the wound. B. wet-to-dry dressings with
normal saline
2 times/day.
C. daily wet-to-dry dressings with 1:1 diluted povidone-iodine (Betadine).
D. whirlpool jet agitation 2 times/day. - ANSWER-B. wet-to-dry dressings
with normal saline 2 times/day.
Wet-to-dry dressings are indicated for necrotic tissue needing debridement.
The moderate amount of drainage would require more frequent (i.e., bid)
dressing changes.
A patient is referred to physical therapy with a 20° knee flexion contracture
following arthroscopic knee surgery 1 month ago. All of the following
interventions are appropriate EXCEPT:
NGN ATI LEADERSHIP PROCTORED EXAM 2025/2026 TEST
BANK – 2 VERSIONS | COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS | ACTUAL EXAM Qs | EXPERT VERIFIED STUDY
GUIDE | GUARANTEED PASS || AWARDED A+ ||
A physical therapist is treating a patient with iontophoresis. If the current is
set at 4 mA, the duration at 15 minutes, and the dexamethasone
(Decadron) solution at 0.04%, with an electrode area of 4 cm2, how should
the therapist record the current dosage in the patient's chart?
A. 0.16 mA-mg
B. 16 mA/cm2 4
C. 0.60 mg/min
D. 60 mA-min - ANSWER-D. 60 mA-min
The current dosage for iontophoresis is calculated by multiplying the
current (4 mA) by the duration (15 minutes).
During pregnancy, which of the following exercises is
CONTRAINDICATED?
A. Curl-ups
B. Bridging
C. Double leg lifts
D. Deep breathing with forced expiration - ANSWER-C. Double leg lifts
Attempting to perform double leg lifts can overwork the abdominal muscles
and cause damage to spinal joints.
A target heart rate is determined for individuals entering a training program
in order to:
A. regulate exercise intensity.
,2|Page
B. estimate energy expenditure
C. control blood pressure at a specific heart rate.
D. ensure that participants exercise at maximal capacity. - ANSWER-A.
regulate exercise intensity.
utilizing a target heart rate will ensure that the appropriate exercise
intensity is being achieved.
For a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy, the MOST appropriate
physical therapy goal is:
A. prevention of contractures and determination of the best method of
mobility
B. preservation of strength and muscle tone.
C. inhibition of abnormal muscle tone and facilitation of normal movement
and postural reactions
D. facilitation of normal movement and improvement of strength. -
ANSWER-A. prevention of contractures and determination of the best
method of mobility
Goals of PT intervention for a child with Duchenne muscular dystrophy are
to retard the development of contracture and muscle weakness, which
could lead to functional limitations, and thus, disability.
Outcomes of a prenatal exercise program would NOT include
A. improved body mechanics.
B. application of relaxation techniques.
C. improved ligamentous flexibility.
D. strengthened pelvic-floor musculature - ANSWER-C. improved
ligamentous flexibility.
Additional stretching of the ligaments could result in joint instability or injury,
and would not be a goal of treatment.
A patient has limited ankle dorsiflexion following open reduction and
internal fixation of the distal tibia. Radiographs reveal that the fracture is
well healed. Treatment with passive mobilization should include:
A. posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
,3|Page
B. lateral glide of the calcaneus on the tibia.
C. posterior glide of the tibia on the talus.
D. anterior glide of the talus on the tibia. - ANSWER-A. posterior glide of
the talus on the tibia.
To facilitate the movement of dorsiflexion one would need to perform a
posterior glide of the talus on the tibia.
A patient who has recently and successfully completed a 12-week program
of Phase III cardiac rehabilitation will MOST likely demonstrate a decrease
in:
A. carbon dioxide elimination in maximal work
B. cardiac output in maximal work.
C. stroke volume at a given level of submaximal work.
D. heart rate at a given level of submaximal work. - ANSWER-D. heart rate
at a given level of submaximal work.
Aerobic conditioning that occurs during the 12 weeks of cardiac
rehabilitation will result in a decrease in heart rate both at rest and with
exercise.
CO2 elimination and cardiac output would both increase with maximal
work.
The stroke volume would increase during submaximal work.
The intervention for a patient who has right sciatic pain caused by piriformis
compression should NOT include:
A. instruction in mild self-stretching in sitting with the right hip and knee
flexed and pressure applied in the medial direction to the distal thigh with
the left upper extremity.
B. contract-relax exercises to the hip external rotators performed with the
patient sidelying on the left and the right hip and knee positioned in 90° of
flexion
C. active resistive strengthening exercises to the piriformis with the patient
prone and the knee flexed.
, 4|Page
D. application of cold to the area of sciatic nerve irritability. - ANSWER-C.
active resistive strengthening exercises to the piriformis with the patient
prone and the knee flexed.
Passive internal rotation and resisted external rotation may be painful.
A physical therapist examining wrist-joint play finds restriction in the
direction indicated by the arrow. To address the restriction, the therapist
should include an intervention to increase which motion of the index finger
(2nd digit)?
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Abduction
D. Rotation - ANSWER-A. Flexion
The therapist is shown performing a volar glide, which is the same, joint
motion used for finger flexion. Limited motion in this direction indicates
limited ability to perform finger flexion.
An elderly patient presents with a sacral pressure ulcer measuring 6 in x 6
in (15 cm x 15 cm). The wound has moderate serous fluid drainage and is
loosely covered with necrotic and fibrotic tissue, although there are no
indications of infection present. The BEST method of debridement is:
A. daily vigorous scrubbing of the wound. B. wet-to-dry dressings with
normal saline
2 times/day.
C. daily wet-to-dry dressings with 1:1 diluted povidone-iodine (Betadine).
D. whirlpool jet agitation 2 times/day. - ANSWER-B. wet-to-dry dressings
with normal saline 2 times/day.
Wet-to-dry dressings are indicated for necrotic tissue needing debridement.
The moderate amount of drainage would require more frequent (i.e., bid)
dressing changes.
A patient is referred to physical therapy with a 20° knee flexion contracture
following arthroscopic knee surgery 1 month ago. All of the following
interventions are appropriate EXCEPT:
