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CEA FNP Test Questions & Answers: NR667 / NR 667 (Latest Update 2025 / 2026) FNP Capstone Practicum and Intensive | 100% Correct | Grade A – Chamberlain

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CEA FNP Test Questions & Answers: NR667 / NR 667 (Latest Update 2025 / 2026) FNP Capstone Practicum and Intensive | 100% Correct | Grade A – Chamberlain

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CEA FNP Test Questions & Answers: NR667
/ NR 667 (Latest Update ) FNP
Capstone Practicum and Intensive | 100%
Correct | Grade A – Chamberlain
Instructions
This test bank contains 50 NCLEX-style questions for the NR667 FNP Capstone Practicum and
Intensive course at Chamberlain University (2024/2025). Questions cover cardiac and
hypertension management, endocrine disorders, dermatology assessments, musculoskeletal
conditions, and primary care scenarios, aligning with course objectives and ANCC/AANP
certification standards. Read each question carefully and select the best answer(s). For "Select all
that apply" questions, choose all correct options. Answers are provided in blue, with rationales
immediately following each question. The test bank is divided into sections: Cardiac and
Hypertension Management, Endocrine Disorders, Dermatology Assessments, Musculoskeletal
Conditions, and Primary Care Scenarios. Use this resource to ensure a comprehensive review for
a guaranteed pass.




Section 1: Cardiac and Hypertension Management
(Questions 1–10)
1. When assessing a patient with a rapid cardiac rhythm for a pulse deficit, where do
S1 heart sounds correlate with the electrocardiographic waves?
A. At the end of the T wave
B. At the start of the T wave
C. Peak of the R wave
D. At the start of the P wave

Answer: Peak of the R wave
Rationale: S1 heart sounds correspond to ventricular systole, which aligns with the peak
of the R wave on an ECG, indicating ventricular depolarization.

2. A 72-year-old male with stable angina undergoes a stress test. What symptom
requires immediate cardiology referral?
A. Mild fatigue
B. Dizziness with activity
C. Occasional palpitations
D. Mild shortness of breath

, Answer: Dizziness with activity
Rationale: Dizziness with activity in a patient with aortic stenosis or angina may precede
syncope, warranting urgent cardiology referral.

3. What hypertension medication is recommended for a patient with diabetes and
chronic kidney disease (CKD)?
A. Calcium channel blocker (CCB)
B. Beta-blocker
C. ACE inhibitor
D. Thiazide diuretic

Answer: ACE inhibitor
Rationale: ACE inhibitors protect renal function in patients with diabetes and CKD.

4. Which medication is contraindicated in a heart failure patient due to causing
cardiac relaxation?
A. Carvedilol
B. Thiazide diuretic
C. Calcium channel blocker (CCB)
D. ACE inhibitor

Answer: Calcium channel blocker (CCB)
Rationale: Non-dihydropyridine CCBs cause cardiac relaxation, which is detrimental in
heart failure.

5. What are common side effects of ACE inhibitors? (Select all that apply)
A. Cough
B. Angioedema
C. Peripheral edema
D. Hyperkalemia
E. Constipation

Answer: Cough, Angioedema, Hyperkalemia
Rationale: ACE inhibitors commonly cause cough, angioedema, and hyperkalemia due
to their mechanism of action; peripheral edema and constipation are more associated with
CCBs.

6. A patient taking candesartan should avoid which supplement?
A. Calcium
B. Potassium
C. Magnesium
D. Vitamin D

Answer: Potassium
Rationale: Candesartan, an ARB, can cause hyperkalemia, so potassium supplements
should be avoided.

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