AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Newest 2025/2026 Complete All
Questions And Correct Detailed
Answers (Verified Answers) |Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version
A 63-year-old man with a medical history of Lyme disease presents to the clinic for
left leg pain that has been going on for the last few weeks. He states the pain feels
like an electric shock down his left leg and into his foot. He also notes a burning,
numb, and tingly sensation in the left foot intermittently. Which of the following is
the most appropriate therapy?
A.
Amitriptyline
B.
Methotrexate
C.
Naproxen
D.
TEST BANK A+ 1
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Phenelzine - Answer ✓✓A.
Amitriptyline
Amitriptyline (A) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used to treat a variety of
psychiatric and neurological diseases. It is a first-line agent to treat neuropathic
pain because of its analgesic properties. Treatment is often multi-disciplinary and
should target the root cause of neuropathy. Physical and occupational therapy are
commonly recommended for people with neuropathic pain to help with functional
goals.
Antihistamine medications are contraindicated for use as a first-line treatment for
older adults due to an increased risk of side effects. Consider a situation where an
older adult reports no therapeutic effect from a recommended first-line treatment
option for allergic rhinitis and the nurse practitioner is now considering an
antihistamine trial. Which of the following antihistamines is most appropriate for
this patient?
A.
Azelastine (Astelin)
B.
Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
C.
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D.
Loratadine (Claritin) - Answer ✓✓A.
Azelastine (Astelin)
TEST BANK A+ 2
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Azelastine (A) is an antihistamine nasal spray for allergic rhinitis that is an
appropriate choice for an older adult who reports lack of a therapeutic effect from
a first-line agent. Antihistamine nasal sprays are preferred over oral formulations
in older adults due to lower risk of systemic side effects
A 12-year-old boy in sixth grade has a history of attention-deficit/hyperactivity
disorder. His inattention and hyperactivity have improved on long-acting
methylphenidate (Ritalin), but his parent reports that he has been persistently
irritable for the entire school year. His reactions to disagreements with his
classmates and teachers are out of proportion and usually proceed to meltdowns.
At home, his mood is labile, ranging from being content to screaming over the
slightest provocation. Recently, his parent noted that he has had a lot of difficulty
sleeping, which she suspects might be contributing to his irritability. The school
psychologist has suggested that the boy be evaluated for possible bipolar disorder.
What additional detail of the boy's clinical history would most support a diagnosis
of bipolar disorder?
A.
He forgets to take his medication, talks excessively, and shifts from one topic to
another
B.
Ov - Answer ✓✓B.
Over the past few weeks, he has slept about 4 hours per night without being
drowsy during the day
A persistent decreased need for sleep (B) would be the symptom most suggestive
of bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder is a mental disorder that is characterized by
unusual shifts in mood, energy, and activity levels that are severe enough to cause
overall dysfunction. A decreased need for sleep for several nights should raise
suspicion for bipolar disorder.
TEST BANK A+ 3
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
A 24-year-old woman presents for her routine Pap smear. Her last Pap smear was
performed 3 years ago and resulted with normal findings. Upon cervical exam, you
notice an erythematous cervix with some purulent discharge around the cervical
os. She states she has been having unprotected sex with more than one partner
and was last tested for sexually transmitted infections a couple of years ago. Based
on this information and these clinical findings, what would be the priority test to
order today?
A.
HIV-1/2 antibody/antigen assay test
B.
Nucleic acid amplification test
C.
Rapid plasma reagin
D.
Venereal disease research laboratory - Answer ✓✓B.
Nucleic acid amplification test
Nucleic acid amplification testing (B) on vaginal swabs (preferred for female
patients) or urine (preferred for male patients) is the recommended screening test
for chlamydia, gonorrhea, and trichomoniasis. These sexually transmitted
infections (STIs) commonly present with no symptoms, which is why cervical
exams are so valuable. Female patients may experience vaginal discharge,
intermenstrual bleeding, and postcoital bleeding. Male patients sometimes
experience urethritis but can also transmit infection with no symptoms. On
cervical exam, the practitioner may see classic findings of cervicitis, including
mucopurulent endocervical discharge, friability, and ectropion.
TEST BANK A+ 4
AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Newest 2025/2026 Complete All
Questions And Correct Detailed
Answers (Verified Answers) |Already
Graded A+||Brand New Version
A 63-year-old man with a medical history of Lyme disease presents to the clinic for
left leg pain that has been going on for the last few weeks. He states the pain feels
like an electric shock down his left leg and into his foot. He also notes a burning,
numb, and tingly sensation in the left foot intermittently. Which of the following is
the most appropriate therapy?
A.
Amitriptyline
B.
Methotrexate
C.
Naproxen
D.
TEST BANK A+ 1
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Phenelzine - Answer ✓✓A.
Amitriptyline
Amitriptyline (A) is a tricyclic antidepressant that is used to treat a variety of
psychiatric and neurological diseases. It is a first-line agent to treat neuropathic
pain because of its analgesic properties. Treatment is often multi-disciplinary and
should target the root cause of neuropathy. Physical and occupational therapy are
commonly recommended for people with neuropathic pain to help with functional
goals.
Antihistamine medications are contraindicated for use as a first-line treatment for
older adults due to an increased risk of side effects. Consider a situation where an
older adult reports no therapeutic effect from a recommended first-line treatment
option for allergic rhinitis and the nurse practitioner is now considering an
antihistamine trial. Which of the following antihistamines is most appropriate for
this patient?
A.
Azelastine (Astelin)
B.
Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
C.
Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D.
Loratadine (Claritin) - Answer ✓✓A.
Azelastine (Astelin)
TEST BANK A+ 2
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
Azelastine (A) is an antihistamine nasal spray for allergic rhinitis that is an
appropriate choice for an older adult who reports lack of a therapeutic effect from
a first-line agent. Antihistamine nasal sprays are preferred over oral formulations
in older adults due to lower risk of systemic side effects
A 12-year-old boy in sixth grade has a history of attention-deficit/hyperactivity
disorder. His inattention and hyperactivity have improved on long-acting
methylphenidate (Ritalin), but his parent reports that he has been persistently
irritable for the entire school year. His reactions to disagreements with his
classmates and teachers are out of proportion and usually proceed to meltdowns.
At home, his mood is labile, ranging from being content to screaming over the
slightest provocation. Recently, his parent noted that he has had a lot of difficulty
sleeping, which she suspects might be contributing to his irritability. The school
psychologist has suggested that the boy be evaluated for possible bipolar disorder.
What additional detail of the boy's clinical history would most support a diagnosis
of bipolar disorder?
A.
He forgets to take his medication, talks excessively, and shifts from one topic to
another
B.
Ov - Answer ✓✓B.
Over the past few weeks, he has slept about 4 hours per night without being
drowsy during the day
A persistent decreased need for sleep (B) would be the symptom most suggestive
of bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder is a mental disorder that is characterized by
unusual shifts in mood, energy, and activity levels that are severe enough to cause
overall dysfunction. A decreased need for sleep for several nights should raise
suspicion for bipolar disorder.
TEST BANK A+ 3
, AANP Exam Version 1 Actual Exam
A 24-year-old woman presents for her routine Pap smear. Her last Pap smear was
performed 3 years ago and resulted with normal findings. Upon cervical exam, you
notice an erythematous cervix with some purulent discharge around the cervical
os. She states she has been having unprotected sex with more than one partner
and was last tested for sexually transmitted infections a couple of years ago. Based
on this information and these clinical findings, what would be the priority test to
order today?
A.
HIV-1/2 antibody/antigen assay test
B.
Nucleic acid amplification test
C.
Rapid plasma reagin
D.
Venereal disease research laboratory - Answer ✓✓B.
Nucleic acid amplification test
Nucleic acid amplification testing (B) on vaginal swabs (preferred for female
patients) or urine (preferred for male patients) is the recommended screening test
for chlamydia, gonorrhea, and trichomoniasis. These sexually transmitted
infections (STIs) commonly present with no symptoms, which is why cervical
exams are so valuable. Female patients may experience vaginal discharge,
intermenstrual bleeding, and postcoital bleeding. Male patients sometimes
experience urethritis but can also transmit infection with no symptoms. On
cervical exam, the practitioner may see classic findings of cervicitis, including
mucopurulent endocervical discharge, friability, and ectropion.
TEST BANK A+ 4
