NSG 522 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
ANCC FNP/ PMHNP EXAM VERSION 1 EXAM
NEWEST 2025/2026 WITH 500+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES | GRADED A+ GUARANTEED
PASS – ACE YOR EXAM
Pdf Download
Jason misses several appointments. The PMHNP notes she feels resentful toward Jason and
is struggling with how to respond to Jason when he finally comes in for his appointment.
Which of the following demonstrates a therapeutic response?
a. "Jason, since you have missed several appointments, we are closing your case."
b. "Jason, it's pretty clear to me that you don't want to be here."
c. "Jason, you are ambivalent about seeking treatment."
d. "Jason, help me understand what's going on so we can figure out how to proceed." -
Answer ✓✓D.
Although the PMHNP's resentment is in response to actual behavior by Jason (his missing
several appointments), clarifiying what is going on for him, his expectations for treatment
TEST BANK 1
, NSG 522 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
and the PMHNP's (and the clinic's) expectations in a non-judgemental manner will help to
develop a therapeutic alliance.
Which is true about pharmacologic treatment of anxiety in older adults?
a. Course of treatment is generally shorter than for younger adults.
b. Drugs that are highly oxidized are more unpredictable than drugs that are mostly
conjugated.
c. The therapeutic dose of SSRIs is generally lower than for young adults.
d. Highly lipophilic drugs have a more linear elimination in older adults.
- Answer ✓✓B.
Liver enzyme functioning (among other things) diminishes as we age. All of the other
statements are false.
A client returns for a follow-up appointment 3 weeks after starting on fluoxetine 20 mg.
During this appointment you notice that her speech is a little rapid, in marked contrast to
the psychomotor retardation and paucity of spontaneous speech she displayed on her first
visit. Instead of looking at the floor, she now makes normal eye contact. Her affect has gone
from constricted to expansive. She continues to have difficulty sleeping, but her energy has
improved and she states she feels "so much better!" What should you conclude about the
shift in the client's presentation?
a. She is experiencing the activating side effects of fluoxetine.
b. She is becoming euthymic.
c. She is becoming hypomanic.
d. She is in a mixed state. - Answer ✓✓C.
In this case, you see a shifting set of symptoms, the most important being her expansive
mood and statement "so much better" that indicates she
has gone beyond euthymia.
TEST BANK 2
, NSG 522 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
Mr. D. is a 35-year-old, married, high-tech industry executive who is referred to the
PMHNP for "insomnia." Mr. D. reports that he falls asleep quickly, but has difficulty
staying asleep. He wakes up several times during the night, and believes he tosses and turns
even when he is sleeping. He wakes up feeling exhausted and drinks "a pot of coffee" to
stay awake and
concentrate during his long work day. He drinks 1 glass of wine most evenings. He denies
any illicit substance use. He denies any symptoms of a mood or anxiety disorder, but is
feeling increasingly frustrated and concerned about his sleep. Which of the following is the
most likely contributing factor to Mr. D.'s ongoing middle insomnia?
a. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
b. Caffeine dependence
c. Alcohol withdrawal
d. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) - Answer ✓✓A.
OSA is the only plausible possibility if the rest of the information given by the client is
accurate. OSA causes clients to have frequent awakenings and
a sense that they are not sleeping deeply ("tossing and turning") that is caused by apnea.
The client should be assessed further for snoring and awareness of apnea. Although the
client states he drinks a lot of coffee, this is driven by his sleep issues. Drinking 1 glass of
wine in the evening would not cause the degree of sleep pathology
he is exhibiting. Other than diminishing concentration that is consistent with sleep
deprivation, there are no other signs and symptoms of ADHD.
Tina is a 54-year-old single white woman who has been a Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse
Practitioner for over 20 years. She is considering making application to a Doctor of
Nursing Practice (DNP) program but states "if a DNP is required to practice I'll get
grandfathered in, no need for me to go back to school." Following the 2008 License,
Accreditation, Certification, and Education (LACE) Consensus Model for Advanced
Practice Registered Nurse Regulation, which statement is correct?
a. Tina is correct: if the DNP becomes a requirement, she will be grandfathered in and
obtain a DNP degree.
b. The DNP is an academic terminal degree and there will not be an opportunity for Tina to
be grandfathered in a DNP.
TEST BANK 3
, NSG 522 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
c. Tina will be grandfathered in and obtain a DNP only if her state requires a DNP to
practice as an APRN.
d. The DNP is a certification and Tina will have to take an examination to be grandfathered
in to obtain a DN - Answer ✓✓B
. APRNs are not grandfathered into an academic degree; degrees must be earned from
accredited academic institutions.
Tim is a board-certified Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) working
in a busy community mental health center (CMHC). He is currently seeing a client
diagnosed with bipolar I disorder who has comorbid hypertension and diabetes. During the
visit, Tim takes the client's blood pressure and her reading is 160/94 mm Hg. The client
denies any
headaches, nausea, chest pain, or shortness of breath. The client states "I can't afford all
these medications so I haven't seen my doctor in 7 months and I am out of all my blood
pressure and sugar medications, can you give me some?" What is Tim's most appropriate
action?
a. Call the pharmacy to find out what medications the client is taking and refill for 1 month
to cover until she can get in to see his primary care provider.
b. Tell the client he cannot refill her medications and inform her to go to the emergency
room should she develop any signs or symptoms of an - Answer ✓✓C.
It is not within the scope of practice of a PMHNP to treat hypertension. Coordination of
care to ensure the client does not run out of medication is the appropriate course of action.
The chief nursing officer of a large behavioral health system approached the PMHNP to
discuss the new Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) behavioral
health measures and specifications. The PMHNP is asked to do a retrospective chart review
of all hospital discharge clients who received a follow-up visit within 7 days of discharge
and within 30 days of discharge. The PMHNP has been asked to engage in which of the
following?
a. Needs assessment project
b. Plan, do, study, act project
TEST BANK 4
ANCC FNP/ PMHNP EXAM VERSION 1 EXAM
NEWEST 2025/2026 WITH 500+ QUESTIONS
AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES | GRADED A+ GUARANTEED
PASS – ACE YOR EXAM
Pdf Download
Jason misses several appointments. The PMHNP notes she feels resentful toward Jason and
is struggling with how to respond to Jason when he finally comes in for his appointment.
Which of the following demonstrates a therapeutic response?
a. "Jason, since you have missed several appointments, we are closing your case."
b. "Jason, it's pretty clear to me that you don't want to be here."
c. "Jason, you are ambivalent about seeking treatment."
d. "Jason, help me understand what's going on so we can figure out how to proceed." -
Answer ✓✓D.
Although the PMHNP's resentment is in response to actual behavior by Jason (his missing
several appointments), clarifiying what is going on for him, his expectations for treatment
TEST BANK 1
, NSG 522 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
and the PMHNP's (and the clinic's) expectations in a non-judgemental manner will help to
develop a therapeutic alliance.
Which is true about pharmacologic treatment of anxiety in older adults?
a. Course of treatment is generally shorter than for younger adults.
b. Drugs that are highly oxidized are more unpredictable than drugs that are mostly
conjugated.
c. The therapeutic dose of SSRIs is generally lower than for young adults.
d. Highly lipophilic drugs have a more linear elimination in older adults.
- Answer ✓✓B.
Liver enzyme functioning (among other things) diminishes as we age. All of the other
statements are false.
A client returns for a follow-up appointment 3 weeks after starting on fluoxetine 20 mg.
During this appointment you notice that her speech is a little rapid, in marked contrast to
the psychomotor retardation and paucity of spontaneous speech she displayed on her first
visit. Instead of looking at the floor, she now makes normal eye contact. Her affect has gone
from constricted to expansive. She continues to have difficulty sleeping, but her energy has
improved and she states she feels "so much better!" What should you conclude about the
shift in the client's presentation?
a. She is experiencing the activating side effects of fluoxetine.
b. She is becoming euthymic.
c. She is becoming hypomanic.
d. She is in a mixed state. - Answer ✓✓C.
In this case, you see a shifting set of symptoms, the most important being her expansive
mood and statement "so much better" that indicates she
has gone beyond euthymia.
TEST BANK 2
, NSG 522 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
Mr. D. is a 35-year-old, married, high-tech industry executive who is referred to the
PMHNP for "insomnia." Mr. D. reports that he falls asleep quickly, but has difficulty
staying asleep. He wakes up several times during the night, and believes he tosses and turns
even when he is sleeping. He wakes up feeling exhausted and drinks "a pot of coffee" to
stay awake and
concentrate during his long work day. He drinks 1 glass of wine most evenings. He denies
any illicit substance use. He denies any symptoms of a mood or anxiety disorder, but is
feeling increasingly frustrated and concerned about his sleep. Which of the following is the
most likely contributing factor to Mr. D.'s ongoing middle insomnia?
a. Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)
b. Caffeine dependence
c. Alcohol withdrawal
d. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) - Answer ✓✓A.
OSA is the only plausible possibility if the rest of the information given by the client is
accurate. OSA causes clients to have frequent awakenings and
a sense that they are not sleeping deeply ("tossing and turning") that is caused by apnea.
The client should be assessed further for snoring and awareness of apnea. Although the
client states he drinks a lot of coffee, this is driven by his sleep issues. Drinking 1 glass of
wine in the evening would not cause the degree of sleep pathology
he is exhibiting. Other than diminishing concentration that is consistent with sleep
deprivation, there are no other signs and symptoms of ADHD.
Tina is a 54-year-old single white woman who has been a Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse
Practitioner for over 20 years. She is considering making application to a Doctor of
Nursing Practice (DNP) program but states "if a DNP is required to practice I'll get
grandfathered in, no need for me to go back to school." Following the 2008 License,
Accreditation, Certification, and Education (LACE) Consensus Model for Advanced
Practice Registered Nurse Regulation, which statement is correct?
a. Tina is correct: if the DNP becomes a requirement, she will be grandfathered in and
obtain a DNP degree.
b. The DNP is an academic terminal degree and there will not be an opportunity for Tina to
be grandfathered in a DNP.
TEST BANK 3
, NSG 522 PSYCHOPHARMACOLOGY EXAM
c. Tina will be grandfathered in and obtain a DNP only if her state requires a DNP to
practice as an APRN.
d. The DNP is a certification and Tina will have to take an examination to be grandfathered
in to obtain a DN - Answer ✓✓B
. APRNs are not grandfathered into an academic degree; degrees must be earned from
accredited academic institutions.
Tim is a board-certified Psychiatric-Mental Health Nurse Practitioner (PMHNP) working
in a busy community mental health center (CMHC). He is currently seeing a client
diagnosed with bipolar I disorder who has comorbid hypertension and diabetes. During the
visit, Tim takes the client's blood pressure and her reading is 160/94 mm Hg. The client
denies any
headaches, nausea, chest pain, or shortness of breath. The client states "I can't afford all
these medications so I haven't seen my doctor in 7 months and I am out of all my blood
pressure and sugar medications, can you give me some?" What is Tim's most appropriate
action?
a. Call the pharmacy to find out what medications the client is taking and refill for 1 month
to cover until she can get in to see his primary care provider.
b. Tell the client he cannot refill her medications and inform her to go to the emergency
room should she develop any signs or symptoms of an - Answer ✓✓C.
It is not within the scope of practice of a PMHNP to treat hypertension. Coordination of
care to ensure the client does not run out of medication is the appropriate course of action.
The chief nursing officer of a large behavioral health system approached the PMHNP to
discuss the new Healthcare Effectiveness Data and Information Set (HEDIS) behavioral
health measures and specifications. The PMHNP is asked to do a retrospective chart review
of all hospital discharge clients who received a follow-up visit within 7 days of discharge
and within 30 days of discharge. The PMHNP has been asked to engage in which of the
following?
a. Needs assessment project
b. Plan, do, study, act project
TEST BANK 4
