NSG 3100 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION

NSG 3100 PRACTICE EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS | ALREADY GRADED A+RECENT VERSION 1. you should mix medications with _______ or _______ and placed in a can or sealable bag to prevent ingestion - answer kitty litter or coffee grounds 2. Emergency restraints need to have a doctor check on the patient within ______ - answer 1 hour 3. When patients have restraints, you must assess them every ________ - answer 2 hours 4. Applying restraints: You must - answer 1.) Assess skin 2.) Get an order from PCP 5. T/F A community-associated form of MRSA can infect those who share close living quarters - answer True 6. Which statement by the nurse correctly identifies the UAP role in patient restraint use? - answer The UAP can assist with applying and monitoring a physical restraint 7. T/F Skin-to-skin contact is of concern for health care personnel, prison inmates, college dormitory residents, team athletes, and military personnel - answer True 8. Movement and Safety: Logroll involves moving the head, chest, and legs at the ______ time - answer SAME *for patients with known/suspected spinal injury 9. A procedural error is the failure to ___________________ and _________________ - answer Properly identify the patient and leaving the bed elevated 10. Assessment of fall risk includes - answer 1.) incontinence 2.) unsteady gait 3.) enviornmental factors (tubes, drains, floor surfaces 11. The Johns Hopkins Hospital Fall Assessment Tool evaluates the patients - answer overall fall risk 12. The Johns Hopkins Hospital Fall Assessment Tool is a seven-item tool that - answer 1.) accommodates the influence of advanced age 2. Fall history 3. Specific medication classes 4.) patient care equipment that tethers 5.) mobility, cognitive, and elimination functions. 13. On the John Hopkins Hospital Fall Assessment tool, the _______ the score, the greater the patient's risk for falling - answer HIGHER 14. The Morse Fall Scale are weighted and focus on - answer (1) history of falling (2) existence of a secondary diagnosis (3) use of an ambulatory aid (4) use of an intravenous line or a saline lock (5) gait (6) mental status. 15. T/F Morse Fall Scale: If the score is 25 or higher, the patient is considered to be at high risk for falls - answer True 16. The Hendrich II Fall Risk Model tool focuses on eight independent risk factors: - answer (1) confusion/disorientation/impulsivity (2) symptomatic depression (3) altered elimination (4) dizziness/vertigo (5) gender (6) use of antiepileptics (7) use of benzodiazepines (8) performance on the Get-Up-and-Go Test 17. T/F The Hendrich II Fall Risk: If the total score is 5 or higher on the Hendrich II Fall Risk Model, the patient is at high risk for a fall - answer True 18. John Hopkins Fall Risk Score- Low: Moderate: High: - answer 0-5 6-13 13 (higher than) 19. Morse Code Fall Risk Score- Low: Moderate: High: - answer 0-24 25-44 45 (higher than) 20. QSEN - answer Quality and Safety Education for Nurses 21. Change CO2 batteries every _______ months - answer 6 22. Fire extinguishers should be inspected ________ per month - answer once 23. ligaments connect - answer bones and cartilage to bones 24. Tendons connect - answer muscle to bone 25. The nervous system controls the - answer posture, balance, gait, and voluntary movements 26. Osteoporosis is more common in which gender? - answer Men 27. Definition: Ischemia - answer Reduced blood flow 28. Definition: Atrophy - answer Wasting 29. Definition: Contrature - answer Permanent fixation of a joint 30. Footdrop is the most common contratures resulting in permanent _____________ _____________ - answer plantar flexion 31. Sustained lack of activity may lead to ____________ of bone, causing bones to become less dense and calcium to be released into the bloodstream. Excess calcium is _____________ through the kidneys and intestinal tract. - answer resorption; excreted 32. Definition: Disuse osteoporosis - answer loss of bone mass due to inactivity 33. Definition: Pathologic bone fractures - answer spontaneous breaks without trauma 34. The Timed Up and Go (TUG) test patient: Patients who take 12 or more seconds to perform this test are at a ___________ risk of falls - answer to get up from a chair, walk ten feet, walk back to the chair and sit down. higher 35. T/F Problems with equilibrium and posture are magnified in patients with cerebellar problems - answer True 36. Areas most at risk for pressure injuries include the - answer buttock, heels, elbows, ear, shoulders, hips, coccyx 37. Isotonic exercises - answer active movement (running, weight lifting) 38. isometric exercises - answer tension and relaxation (kegel exercises) 39. how to walk with a cane - answer 1.) cane on strong side 2.) move cane first 3.) bad leg 4.) strong leg 40. How to walk with crutches: Two-point gait Four-point gait - answer Two-point gait: crutch first, thenthe opposite leg Four-point gait: crutch first, opposite leg, other crutch, opposite leg 41. Semi-fowlers how should the head of the patient's bed be positioned - answer 30 degrees 42. Fowler how should the head of the bed be positioned - answer 45-60 degrees 43. High Fowlers how should the head of the patients bed be positioned - answer 90 degrees 44. Clinical judgment - answer the observed outcome of critical thinking and decision-making 45. Clinical nursing judgment involves - answer cognitive, psychomotor, and affective processes evidenced by actions and behaviors 46. Critical thinking involves - answer the application of knowledge and experience to identify patient problems and to direct clinical judgments and actions that result in positive patient outcomes 47. Clinical reasoning is the ability - answer to focus and filter clinical data to recognize what is most and least important so that the nurse can identify whether an actual problem is present 48. Clinical reasoning must take place ___________ making decisions and initiating care. - answer Before 49. Inference - answer educated guess 50. clinical reasoning - answer prioritizing most to least important 51. clinical judgement - answer making the right decision and taking your knowledge and expertise (long term) 52. problem solving - answer defining, identifying, and implementing 53. subjective data - answer from the patient 54. objective - answer measurable 55. primary source - answer the patient 56. secondary source - answer anyone else 57. direct - answer The nurse controls the conversation 58. non-direct - answer An open-ended conversation when the patient is given the prompt to answer the questions 59. comprehensive nursing assessment - answer once when intially interviewed (all data to establish baseline) 60. problem-focused assessment - answer only on the problem 61. Assessing - answer collecting, validating, and communicating patient data 62. diagnosis - answer analyzing and synthesizing data 63. Planning - answer determining how to prevent client problems to develop an individualized care plan with client goals stated 64. Implementation - answer carrying out the plan of care 65. Evaluation - answer measuring the degree to which goals have been achieved to determine how to modify care plans 66. Safety Hazards - answer -lifestyle -cognitive awareness -ability to communicate -mobility health status -emotional state -environmental factors -sensory perception altered -safety aweareness -feeding 67. Obtaining a capillary blood specimen to measure blood glucose, you should - answer ensure there is good blood flow at the puncture site 68. True or False When testing for fecal occult blood, a green color indicates a guaiac positive result. - answer False 69. A RN instructing a female patient on obtaining a clean catch urine specimen should stress to: - answer Void a small amount of urine before collecting the specimen