1
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored
Exams 2025/2026 – Verified Questions
and Correct Answers
1. A nurse is administering lisinopril to a client with hypertension. Which
adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
• A) Hyperglycemia
• B) Dry cough
• C) Constipation
• D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due to increased
bradykinin levels. Hyperglycemia, constipation, and bradycardia are not typical adverse effects.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should
the nurse include in patient education?
• A) Take on an empty stomach
• B) Take with meals
• C) Avoid carbohydrates
• D) Take at bedtime only
Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset, a common
adverse effect. Taking it on an empty stomach may increase GI irritation.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin IV. Which laboratory value should
be monitored closely?
• A) INR
• B) aPTT
• C) Platelet count
• D) Serum creatinine
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) to ensure therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding. INR is used for warfarin.
, 2
4. A client receiving furosemide reports muscle cramps. What should the nurse
assess first?
• A) Blood glucose
• B) Potassium level
• C) Sodium level
• D) Calcium level
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, leading to muscle cramps.
Assessing potassium levels is the priority to identify and correct electrolyte imbalances.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which food should the client
limit?
• A) Dairy products
• B) Green leafy vegetables
• C) Citrus fruits
• D) Red meat
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can antagonize warfarin’s
anticoagulant effect, requiring dietary consistency to maintain therapeutic INR levels.
6. A client is prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which adverse effect should the
nurse monitor for?
• A) Hypotension
• B) Tachycardia
• C) Hypoglycemia
• D) Sedation
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, commonly
causing tachycardia. Hypotension, hypoglycemia, and sedation are not typical.
7. A nurse is administering morphine to a client with severe pain. What is the
priority nursing action?
• A) Assess pain level
• B) Monitor respiratory rate
• C) Check blood pressure
• D) Evaluate pupil response
Rationale: Morphine, an opioid, can cause respiratory depression, making respiratory rate
monitoring the priority to ensure client safety.
, 3
8. A client is prescribed prednisone for rheumatoid arthritis. Which adverse
effect should the nurse teach the client to report?
• A) Increased appetite
• B) Mood changes
• C) Weight loss
• D) Improved joint mobility
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause mood changes, including irritability or
depression, which should be reported. Increased appetite and improved mobility are expected
effects.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro. When should this medication
be given?
• A) At bedtime
• B) Before meals
• C) With meals
• D) Two hours after meals
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, is administered 5–15 minutes before meals to
control postprandial blood glucose spikes.
10. A client is receiving gentamicin IV. Which adverse effect indicates
ototoxicity?
• A) Nausea
• B) Tinnitus
• C) Rash
• D) Fever
Rationale: Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, can cause ototoxicity, with tinnitus as an early sign.
Monitoring hearing is critical to prevent permanent damage.
11. A nurse is teaching a client about fluoxetine for depression. Which
instruction is correct?
• A) Stop if nausea occurs
• B) Report suicidal thoughts
• C) Take in the morning only
• D) Avoid dairy products
Rationale: Fluoxetine, an SSRI, may increase suicidal thoughts, especially initially, requiring
immediate reporting. Timing is flexible, and nausea or diet are not primary concerns.
ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored
Exams 2025/2026 – Verified Questions
and Correct Answers
1. A nurse is administering lisinopril to a client with hypertension. Which
adverse effect should the nurse monitor for?
• A) Hyperglycemia
• B) Dry cough
• C) Constipation
• D) Bradycardia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a dry cough due to increased
bradykinin levels. Hyperglycemia, constipation, and bradycardia are not typical adverse effects.
2. A client is prescribed metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which instruction should
the nurse include in patient education?
• A) Take on an empty stomach
• B) Take with meals
• C) Avoid carbohydrates
• D) Take at bedtime only
Rationale: Metformin should be taken with meals to reduce gastrointestinal upset, a common
adverse effect. Taking it on an empty stomach may increase GI irritation.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer heparin IV. Which laboratory value should
be monitored closely?
• A) INR
• B) aPTT
• C) Platelet count
• D) Serum creatinine
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using activated partial thromboplastin
time (aPTT) to ensure therapeutic levels and prevent bleeding. INR is used for warfarin.
, 2
4. A client receiving furosemide reports muscle cramps. What should the nurse
assess first?
• A) Blood glucose
• B) Potassium level
• C) Sodium level
• D) Calcium level
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, leading to muscle cramps.
Assessing potassium levels is the priority to identify and correct electrolyte imbalances.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin. Which food should the client
limit?
• A) Dairy products
• B) Green leafy vegetables
• C) Citrus fruits
• D) Red meat
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which can antagonize warfarin’s
anticoagulant effect, requiring dietary consistency to maintain therapeutic INR levels.
6. A client is prescribed albuterol for asthma. Which adverse effect should the
nurse monitor for?
• A) Hypotension
• B) Tachycardia
• C) Hypoglycemia
• D) Sedation
Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 agonist, stimulates the sympathetic nervous system, commonly
causing tachycardia. Hypotension, hypoglycemia, and sedation are not typical.
7. A nurse is administering morphine to a client with severe pain. What is the
priority nursing action?
• A) Assess pain level
• B) Monitor respiratory rate
• C) Check blood pressure
• D) Evaluate pupil response
Rationale: Morphine, an opioid, can cause respiratory depression, making respiratory rate
monitoring the priority to ensure client safety.
, 3
8. A client is prescribed prednisone for rheumatoid arthritis. Which adverse
effect should the nurse teach the client to report?
• A) Increased appetite
• B) Mood changes
• C) Weight loss
• D) Improved joint mobility
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause mood changes, including irritability or
depression, which should be reported. Increased appetite and improved mobility are expected
effects.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro. When should this medication
be given?
• A) At bedtime
• B) Before meals
• C) With meals
• D) Two hours after meals
Rationale: Insulin lispro, a rapid-acting insulin, is administered 5–15 minutes before meals to
control postprandial blood glucose spikes.
10. A client is receiving gentamicin IV. Which adverse effect indicates
ototoxicity?
• A) Nausea
• B) Tinnitus
• C) Rash
• D) Fever
Rationale: Gentamicin, an aminoglycoside, can cause ototoxicity, with tinnitus as an early sign.
Monitoring hearing is critical to prevent permanent damage.
11. A nurse is teaching a client about fluoxetine for depression. Which
instruction is correct?
• A) Stop if nausea occurs
• B) Report suicidal thoughts
• C) Take in the morning only
• D) Avoid dairy products
Rationale: Fluoxetine, an SSRI, may increase suicidal thoughts, especially initially, requiring
immediate reporting. Timing is flexible, and nausea or diet are not primary concerns.
