1
AAPC CPC Final Exam 2025 – Actual
Exam Versions 1, 2, and 3 (100 Questions
Each – 300 Total) with Verified Correct
Answers | A Grade Guaranteed
AAPC CPC Final Exam 2025 – Version 1
1. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code for a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
mellitus with diabetic neuropathy, uncontrolled?
A. E11.40
B. E10.40
C. E11.42
D. E11.9
A. E11.40
Rationale: E11.40 specifies type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic neuropathy,
unspecified. The code reflects the complication (neuropathy) and aligns with
uncontrolled status as no additional control-specific code is required per ICD-10-CM
guidelines.
2. A physician performs a colonoscopy with biopsy on a patient with rectal bleeding.
What is the correct CPT code?
A. 45378
B. 45380
C. 45385
D. 45388
B. 45380
Rationale: CPT 45380 describes a colonoscopy with biopsy, which matches the
procedure performed. Other codes refer to diagnostic colonoscopy (45378), snare
polypectomy (45385), or ablation (45388).
3. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for a wheelchair with fixed full-length arms
and swing-away detachable footrests?
A. E1130
B. K0001
C. K0003
D. E1170
B. K0001
Rationale: K0001 is the HCPCS code for a standard wheelchair with fixed full-length
arms and swing-away detachable footrests, commonly used for basic mobility needs.
4. A procedure is performed on both the left and right knees during the same session.
Which modifier should be appended to indicate bilateral procedures?
A. 50
, 2
B. 51
C. 59
D. 76
A. 50
Rationale: Modifier 50 indicates a bilateral procedure performed on both sides of the
body during the same session, per CPT modifier guidelines.
5. According to NCCI edits, which service is bundled into CPT code 99213 when
performed on the same day?
A. 96372
B. 81002
C. 93000
D. 90471
B. 81002
Rationale: NCCI edits bundle routine urinalysis (81002) into E/M services like 99213
when performed on the same day, unless a modifier (e.g., 59) is justified.
6. What is the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with a closed fracture of the distal radius,
initial encounter?
A. S52.501A
B. S52.502A
C. S52.601A
D. S52.602A
A. S52.501A
Rationale: S52.501A codes a closed fracture of the distal end of the right radius, initial
encounter. The 7th character ‘A’ indicates the initial encounter for active treatment.
7. A patient undergoes a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. What is the correct CPT
code for a patient aged 8 years?
A. 42820
B. 42821
C. 42825
D. 42826
B. 42821
Rationale: CPT 42821 is used for tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy for patients under 12
years old, aligning with the patient’s age of 8.
8. Which HCPCS Level II modifier indicates a service was performed by a physical
therapist?
A. GP
B. GO
C. GN
D. KX
A. GP
Rationale: Modifier GP is used to indicate services provided under an outpatient
physical therapy plan of care, per CMS guidelines.
9. A physician performs a level 3 E/M service in the office for an established patient.
What is the correct CPT code?
A. 99212
B. 99213
, 3
C. 99214
D. 99215
B. 99213
Rationale: CPT 99213 represents a level 3 E/M service for an established patient in an
office setting, based on MDM or time-based criteria.
10. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code for essential hypertension?
A. I10
B. I11.0
C. I12.0
D. I13.0
A. I10
Rationale: I10 is the ICD-10-CM code for essential (primary) hypertension without
complications, per coding guidelines.
11. A patient receives a 30-minute chemotherapy infusion. What is the correct CPT
code?
A. 96409
B. 96413
C. 96415
D. 96417
B. 96413
Rationale: CPT 96413 is used for chemotherapy infusion, initial hour (up to 1 hour),
which includes a 30-minute infusion.
12. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for an influenza vaccine, quadrivalent, split
virus, for intramuscular use?
A. Q2035
B. Q2036
C. Q2037
D. Q2038
C. Q2037
Rationale: Q2037 represents the Fluzone quadrivalent influenza vaccine for
intramuscular use, per HCPCS Level II.
13. A procedure is discontinued due to patient intolerance after anesthesia is
administered. Which modifier is appropriate?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 73
D. 74
B. 53
Rationale: Modifier 53 indicates a discontinued procedure due to patient factors after
initiation, such as intolerance post-anesthesia.
14. What is the ICD-10-CM code for acute appendicitis with localized peritonitis?
A. K35.20
B. K35.30
C. K35.80
D. K35.89
B. K35.30
, 4
Rationale: K35.30 codes acute appendicitis with localized peritonitis, per ICD-10-CM
specificity.
15. A dermatologist performs a destruction of 5 benign lesions on the trunk. What is the
correct CPT code?
A. 17000
B. 17110
C. 17250
D. 17260
B. 17110
Rationale: CPT 17110 is used for the destruction of up to 14 benign lesions, excluding
skin tags, on any body area.
16. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for a walker with trunk support?
A. E0141
B. E0143
C. E0147
D. E0149
C. E0147
Rationale: E0147 describes a heavy-duty walker with trunk support, per HCPCS Level II.
17. A physician performs a procedure in a facility setting, billing only the professional
component. Which modifier is used?
A. 26
B. TC
C. 54
D. 55
A. 26
Rationale: Modifier 26 denotes the professional component of a service, excluding the
technical component, in a facility setting.
18. What is the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with chronic kidney disease, stage 3?
A. N18.1
B. N18.2
C. N18.3
D. N18.4
C. N18.3
Rationale: N18.3 codes chronic kidney disease, stage 3 (moderate), per ICD-10-CM.
19. A patient undergoes a diagnostic laryngoscopy. What is the correct CPT code?
A. 31505
B. 31515
C. 31525
D. 31575
D. 31575
Rationale: CPT 31575 describes a flexible diagnostic laryngoscopy, commonly used for
diagnostic evaluation.
20. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for a single dose vial of hepatitis B vaccine?
A. J3420
B. J3490
C. 90746
AAPC CPC Final Exam 2025 – Actual
Exam Versions 1, 2, and 3 (100 Questions
Each – 300 Total) with Verified Correct
Answers | A Grade Guaranteed
AAPC CPC Final Exam 2025 – Version 1
1. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code for a patient diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
mellitus with diabetic neuropathy, uncontrolled?
A. E11.40
B. E10.40
C. E11.42
D. E11.9
A. E11.40
Rationale: E11.40 specifies type 2 diabetes mellitus with diabetic neuropathy,
unspecified. The code reflects the complication (neuropathy) and aligns with
uncontrolled status as no additional control-specific code is required per ICD-10-CM
guidelines.
2. A physician performs a colonoscopy with biopsy on a patient with rectal bleeding.
What is the correct CPT code?
A. 45378
B. 45380
C. 45385
D. 45388
B. 45380
Rationale: CPT 45380 describes a colonoscopy with biopsy, which matches the
procedure performed. Other codes refer to diagnostic colonoscopy (45378), snare
polypectomy (45385), or ablation (45388).
3. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for a wheelchair with fixed full-length arms
and swing-away detachable footrests?
A. E1130
B. K0001
C. K0003
D. E1170
B. K0001
Rationale: K0001 is the HCPCS code for a standard wheelchair with fixed full-length
arms and swing-away detachable footrests, commonly used for basic mobility needs.
4. A procedure is performed on both the left and right knees during the same session.
Which modifier should be appended to indicate bilateral procedures?
A. 50
, 2
B. 51
C. 59
D. 76
A. 50
Rationale: Modifier 50 indicates a bilateral procedure performed on both sides of the
body during the same session, per CPT modifier guidelines.
5. According to NCCI edits, which service is bundled into CPT code 99213 when
performed on the same day?
A. 96372
B. 81002
C. 93000
D. 90471
B. 81002
Rationale: NCCI edits bundle routine urinalysis (81002) into E/M services like 99213
when performed on the same day, unless a modifier (e.g., 59) is justified.
6. What is the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with a closed fracture of the distal radius,
initial encounter?
A. S52.501A
B. S52.502A
C. S52.601A
D. S52.602A
A. S52.501A
Rationale: S52.501A codes a closed fracture of the distal end of the right radius, initial
encounter. The 7th character ‘A’ indicates the initial encounter for active treatment.
7. A patient undergoes a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy. What is the correct CPT
code for a patient aged 8 years?
A. 42820
B. 42821
C. 42825
D. 42826
B. 42821
Rationale: CPT 42821 is used for tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy for patients under 12
years old, aligning with the patient’s age of 8.
8. Which HCPCS Level II modifier indicates a service was performed by a physical
therapist?
A. GP
B. GO
C. GN
D. KX
A. GP
Rationale: Modifier GP is used to indicate services provided under an outpatient
physical therapy plan of care, per CMS guidelines.
9. A physician performs a level 3 E/M service in the office for an established patient.
What is the correct CPT code?
A. 99212
B. 99213
, 3
C. 99214
D. 99215
B. 99213
Rationale: CPT 99213 represents a level 3 E/M service for an established patient in an
office setting, based on MDM or time-based criteria.
10. What is the correct ICD-10-CM code for essential hypertension?
A. I10
B. I11.0
C. I12.0
D. I13.0
A. I10
Rationale: I10 is the ICD-10-CM code for essential (primary) hypertension without
complications, per coding guidelines.
11. A patient receives a 30-minute chemotherapy infusion. What is the correct CPT
code?
A. 96409
B. 96413
C. 96415
D. 96417
B. 96413
Rationale: CPT 96413 is used for chemotherapy infusion, initial hour (up to 1 hour),
which includes a 30-minute infusion.
12. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for an influenza vaccine, quadrivalent, split
virus, for intramuscular use?
A. Q2035
B. Q2036
C. Q2037
D. Q2038
C. Q2037
Rationale: Q2037 represents the Fluzone quadrivalent influenza vaccine for
intramuscular use, per HCPCS Level II.
13. A procedure is discontinued due to patient intolerance after anesthesia is
administered. Which modifier is appropriate?
A. 52
B. 53
C. 73
D. 74
B. 53
Rationale: Modifier 53 indicates a discontinued procedure due to patient factors after
initiation, such as intolerance post-anesthesia.
14. What is the ICD-10-CM code for acute appendicitis with localized peritonitis?
A. K35.20
B. K35.30
C. K35.80
D. K35.89
B. K35.30
, 4
Rationale: K35.30 codes acute appendicitis with localized peritonitis, per ICD-10-CM
specificity.
15. A dermatologist performs a destruction of 5 benign lesions on the trunk. What is the
correct CPT code?
A. 17000
B. 17110
C. 17250
D. 17260
B. 17110
Rationale: CPT 17110 is used for the destruction of up to 14 benign lesions, excluding
skin tags, on any body area.
16. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for a walker with trunk support?
A. E0141
B. E0143
C. E0147
D. E0149
C. E0147
Rationale: E0147 describes a heavy-duty walker with trunk support, per HCPCS Level II.
17. A physician performs a procedure in a facility setting, billing only the professional
component. Which modifier is used?
A. 26
B. TC
C. 54
D. 55
A. 26
Rationale: Modifier 26 denotes the professional component of a service, excluding the
technical component, in a facility setting.
18. What is the ICD-10-CM code for a patient with chronic kidney disease, stage 3?
A. N18.1
B. N18.2
C. N18.3
D. N18.4
C. N18.3
Rationale: N18.3 codes chronic kidney disease, stage 3 (moderate), per ICD-10-CM.
19. A patient undergoes a diagnostic laryngoscopy. What is the correct CPT code?
A. 31505
B. 31515
C. 31525
D. 31575
D. 31575
Rationale: CPT 31575 describes a flexible diagnostic laryngoscopy, commonly used for
diagnostic evaluation.
20. Which HCPCS Level II code is used for a single dose vial of hepatitis B vaccine?
A. J3420
B. J3490
C. 90746
