MLS PRACTICE COMP EXAM WITH ALL CORRECT &
100% VERIFIED ANSWERS|2025-2026 LATEST EXAM|
ALREADY GRADED A+|JUST RELEASED
The pathophysiology of Glazmann thrombasthenia is:
A. Deficiency of dense granules
B. Deficiency of glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor
C. Deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
D. deficiency of microtubules Correct answer-C. Deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
Chagas disease is caused by:
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma palladium
C. Trypanosoma brucei
D. None of the above Correct answer-A. Trypanosoma cruzi
What would a patient with a microcyctic/hypochromic anemia most likely have noted on their CBC?
A. MCV less than 80 fl
B. Hemoglobin of 14.5 gm/dL
C. MCHC of 36 gm/dL
D. MCH of 28-31 pg/dL Correct answer-A. MCV less than 80 fl
The test of choice and most sensitive assay for use with CSF to diagnose aseptic meningitis caused by
enterovirus is which of the following?
A. Cell culture
B. PCR
C. Agntigenemia immunoassay
D. Shell vial assay Correct answer-B. PCR
Frequently, DNA probes are used to detect target sequences in Northern or Southern blots.
Hybridization occurs between DNA probe and RNA or DNA on the blot, respectively. To ensure that
only exactly matched complementary sequences have bound together, the blot is washed under
stringent conditions. Stringency of the wash steps to remove unbound and mismatched probed can
be increased by:
A. High temperature, high NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
B. High temperature, low NaCl concentraation, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
C. High temperature, high NaCl concentration, and low detergent (i.e. SDS) concentration
D. Low temperature, high NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution Correct
answer-B. High temperature, low NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
An ordered sequence of events makes up the cell cycle. Which of the following describes the correct
sequence of events starting at G1?
A. G1, G2, S, M
B. G1, S, G2, M
C. G1, M, G2, S
D. G1, S, M, G2 Correct answer-B. G1, S, G2, M
A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On
microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brush-like formation are seen. The
most likely organism is which of the following?
,A. Penicillium sp
B. Acremonium sp
C. Paecilomyces sp
D. Scopulariopsis sp Correct answer-A. Penicillium sp
Most of the chromosomes abnormalities seen in myelodysplastic syndrome involve which of the
following chromosomes?
A. 5, 7, 8, 11, 13, 20
B. 2, 3, 9, 15, 16, 26
C. 3, 6, 10, 14, 21
D. 1, 4, 15, 17, 21 Correct answer-A. 5, 7, 8, 11, 13, 20
Crystals in synovial fluid that appear needle-like and are yellow when their long axes lie parallel to
the direction of the slow wave vibration of the compensated polarized light are:
A. Monosodium urate
B. Corticosteroid
C. Hydroxyapatite
D. Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate Correct answer-A. Monosodium Urate
The most commonly used challenge test to assist in evaluating a potential growth hormone
deficiency is the:
A. Insulin challenge test
B. Dexamethasone suppression test
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Captopril suppression test Correct answer-Insulin challenge test
In the regulator type of Rh null, which of the following genes is mutated?
A. RHAG
B. RHCE
C. RHD
D. LW Correct answer-A. RHAG
The major intracellular cation is which of the following?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate Correct answer-A. Potassium
A dermatophyte mold isolated in the laboratory has the following properties: Macroscopic = white,
fluffy colony with red reverse; Microscopic = tear drop shaped, "thyrse" microconidia and no
macroconidia; Urease negative and Hair perforation negative. What is the most likely identification?
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C. Trichophyton rubrum
D. Epidermophyton floccosum Correct answer-C. Trichopyton rubrum
A patient currently types as group O, Rh positive. The patient's history shows the same ABO/Rh but
with a previously identified anti-E. However, the current sample shows a negative antibody screen.
What type of blood should be transfused to this patient?
A. O Rh positive, AHG compatible
B. O Rh positive, negative for the E antigen, AHG-crossmatch compatible
,C. O Rh negative
D. O Rh positive, E antigen negative, electronic crossmatch acceptable Correct answer-B. O Rh
positive, negative for E antigen, AHG-crossmatch compatible
An MLS accidentally adds factor VII deficient plasma to the patient's specimen instead of normal
pooled plasma when performing the initial mixing studies. A PT is then performed on the mixed
specimen. If the PT does not correct what is the likely explanation?
A. The patient has a lupuslike anticoagulant
B. The patient likely has a factor VII deficiency
C. No conclusions can be made because the factor-deficient plasma reagent affects all PT
measurements
D. This is a normal result Correct answer-B. The patient likely has a factor VII deficiency
Which disorder results in secretion of "Bence Jones" light chains in the urine?
A. Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia
B. Multiple Myeloma
C. Wegener's Disease
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency Correct answer-B. Multiple myeloma
Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?
A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion
B. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets
C. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels
D. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability Correct answer-A. Maintain the pH so the
platelets will be alive before transfusion
Which of the following factors binds to platelets via the glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor?
A. von Willebrand factor
B. Factor II
C. Fibrinogen
D. Thrombin Correct answer-A. von Willebrand factor
The type of graft rejection that occurs within minutes of a tissue transplant is:
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Hyperacute
D. Accelerated Correct answer-C. Hyperacute
If a fasting plasma glucose level of 100 mg/dL is obtained on an individual, the expected fasting
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose level in mg/dL would be:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 65
D. 100
E. 180 Correct answer-C. 65
On first glance a peripheral blood smear appears to be of poor quality. On further investigation it is
determined that the smear contains numerous smudge cells. This cellular artifact is associated with
which of the following?
A. Chronic Lymphocyte Leukemia
B. Hairy Cell Leukemia
, C. Infectious Mononucleosis
D. Plasmacytic Leukemia Correct answer-A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
In certain malignant disorders, a substance is found in the urine that turns the urine dark brown or
black on exposure of the urine to air. The substance is:
A. Urobilinogen
B. Indican
C. Melanin
D. Porphyrin
E. 5-HIAA Correct answer-C. Melanin
Which of the following is a key characteristic of Coccidioides immitis?
A. Has a higher dissemination rate in white females
B. Is endemic in the Northeastern United States
C. Produces endosporulating spherules in tissue
D. Forms foot cells Correct answer-C. Produces endosporulating spherules in tissue
An increased osmole gap is most commonly seen in which of the following?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Pancreatitis
C. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
D. Liver failure Correct answer-C. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
The peripheral blood and bone marrow picture sometimes will look similar in myelodysplastic
syndromes and some RBC disorders. Which of the following RBC disorders tend to have a peripheral
smear appearance similar to cases of myelodysplastic syndromes?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. a-thalassemia minor
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia Correct answer-C. Megaloblastic anemia
The single most appropriate screening test to detect thyroid disease is:
A. THBR
B. sTSH
C. Free thyrozine index
D. TT4
E. FT4 Correct answer-B. sTSH
Which of the following statements best describes a nephelometric assay?
A. It measures the decrease in light intensity in a solutionof antigen-antibody complexes
B. The concentration of antigen is directly proportional to the intensity of stain
C. The concentration of antigen is directly proportional to the amount of light scattered
D. It measures the increase in light intensity in a solution of antigen-antibody complexes Correct
answer-C. The concentration of antigen is directly proportional to the amount of light scattered
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin?
A. Biliverdin reductase
B. Peroxidase
C. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
D. B-glucuronidase Correct answer-C. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
100% VERIFIED ANSWERS|2025-2026 LATEST EXAM|
ALREADY GRADED A+|JUST RELEASED
The pathophysiology of Glazmann thrombasthenia is:
A. Deficiency of dense granules
B. Deficiency of glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor
C. Deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
D. deficiency of microtubules Correct answer-C. Deficiency of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor
Chagas disease is caused by:
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma palladium
C. Trypanosoma brucei
D. None of the above Correct answer-A. Trypanosoma cruzi
What would a patient with a microcyctic/hypochromic anemia most likely have noted on their CBC?
A. MCV less than 80 fl
B. Hemoglobin of 14.5 gm/dL
C. MCHC of 36 gm/dL
D. MCH of 28-31 pg/dL Correct answer-A. MCV less than 80 fl
The test of choice and most sensitive assay for use with CSF to diagnose aseptic meningitis caused by
enterovirus is which of the following?
A. Cell culture
B. PCR
C. Agntigenemia immunoassay
D. Shell vial assay Correct answer-B. PCR
Frequently, DNA probes are used to detect target sequences in Northern or Southern blots.
Hybridization occurs between DNA probe and RNA or DNA on the blot, respectively. To ensure that
only exactly matched complementary sequences have bound together, the blot is washed under
stringent conditions. Stringency of the wash steps to remove unbound and mismatched probed can
be increased by:
A. High temperature, high NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
B. High temperature, low NaCl concentraation, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
C. High temperature, high NaCl concentration, and low detergent (i.e. SDS) concentration
D. Low temperature, high NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution Correct
answer-B. High temperature, low NaCl concentration, and high detergent (i.e. SDS) solution
An ordered sequence of events makes up the cell cycle. Which of the following describes the correct
sequence of events starting at G1?
A. G1, G2, S, M
B. G1, S, G2, M
C. G1, M, G2, S
D. G1, S, M, G2 Correct answer-B. G1, S, G2, M
A mold is isolated in the laboratory that displays a velvety, gray-green colony morphology. On
microscopic evaluation, flask-shaped conidiophores arranged in a brush-like formation are seen. The
most likely organism is which of the following?
,A. Penicillium sp
B. Acremonium sp
C. Paecilomyces sp
D. Scopulariopsis sp Correct answer-A. Penicillium sp
Most of the chromosomes abnormalities seen in myelodysplastic syndrome involve which of the
following chromosomes?
A. 5, 7, 8, 11, 13, 20
B. 2, 3, 9, 15, 16, 26
C. 3, 6, 10, 14, 21
D. 1, 4, 15, 17, 21 Correct answer-A. 5, 7, 8, 11, 13, 20
Crystals in synovial fluid that appear needle-like and are yellow when their long axes lie parallel to
the direction of the slow wave vibration of the compensated polarized light are:
A. Monosodium urate
B. Corticosteroid
C. Hydroxyapatite
D. Calcium Pyrophosphate Dihydrate Correct answer-A. Monosodium Urate
The most commonly used challenge test to assist in evaluating a potential growth hormone
deficiency is the:
A. Insulin challenge test
B. Dexamethasone suppression test
C. Oral glucose tolerance test
D. Captopril suppression test Correct answer-Insulin challenge test
In the regulator type of Rh null, which of the following genes is mutated?
A. RHAG
B. RHCE
C. RHD
D. LW Correct answer-A. RHAG
The major intracellular cation is which of the following?
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate Correct answer-A. Potassium
A dermatophyte mold isolated in the laboratory has the following properties: Macroscopic = white,
fluffy colony with red reverse; Microscopic = tear drop shaped, "thyrse" microconidia and no
macroconidia; Urease negative and Hair perforation negative. What is the most likely identification?
A. Trichophyton tonsurans
B. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
C. Trichophyton rubrum
D. Epidermophyton floccosum Correct answer-C. Trichopyton rubrum
A patient currently types as group O, Rh positive. The patient's history shows the same ABO/Rh but
with a previously identified anti-E. However, the current sample shows a negative antibody screen.
What type of blood should be transfused to this patient?
A. O Rh positive, AHG compatible
B. O Rh positive, negative for the E antigen, AHG-crossmatch compatible
,C. O Rh negative
D. O Rh positive, E antigen negative, electronic crossmatch acceptable Correct answer-B. O Rh
positive, negative for E antigen, AHG-crossmatch compatible
An MLS accidentally adds factor VII deficient plasma to the patient's specimen instead of normal
pooled plasma when performing the initial mixing studies. A PT is then performed on the mixed
specimen. If the PT does not correct what is the likely explanation?
A. The patient has a lupuslike anticoagulant
B. The patient likely has a factor VII deficiency
C. No conclusions can be made because the factor-deficient plasma reagent affects all PT
measurements
D. This is a normal result Correct answer-B. The patient likely has a factor VII deficiency
Which disorder results in secretion of "Bence Jones" light chains in the urine?
A. Waldenstrom's Macroglobulinemia
B. Multiple Myeloma
C. Wegener's Disease
D. Severe combined immunodeficiency Correct answer-B. Multiple myeloma
Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?
A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion
B. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets
C. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels
D. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability Correct answer-A. Maintain the pH so the
platelets will be alive before transfusion
Which of the following factors binds to platelets via the glycoprotein Ib/IX receptor?
A. von Willebrand factor
B. Factor II
C. Fibrinogen
D. Thrombin Correct answer-A. von Willebrand factor
The type of graft rejection that occurs within minutes of a tissue transplant is:
A. Acute
B. Chronic
C. Hyperacute
D. Accelerated Correct answer-C. Hyperacute
If a fasting plasma glucose level of 100 mg/dL is obtained on an individual, the expected fasting
cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) glucose level in mg/dL would be:
A. 25
B. 50
C. 65
D. 100
E. 180 Correct answer-C. 65
On first glance a peripheral blood smear appears to be of poor quality. On further investigation it is
determined that the smear contains numerous smudge cells. This cellular artifact is associated with
which of the following?
A. Chronic Lymphocyte Leukemia
B. Hairy Cell Leukemia
, C. Infectious Mononucleosis
D. Plasmacytic Leukemia Correct answer-A. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
In certain malignant disorders, a substance is found in the urine that turns the urine dark brown or
black on exposure of the urine to air. The substance is:
A. Urobilinogen
B. Indican
C. Melanin
D. Porphyrin
E. 5-HIAA Correct answer-C. Melanin
Which of the following is a key characteristic of Coccidioides immitis?
A. Has a higher dissemination rate in white females
B. Is endemic in the Northeastern United States
C. Produces endosporulating spherules in tissue
D. Forms foot cells Correct answer-C. Produces endosporulating spherules in tissue
An increased osmole gap is most commonly seen in which of the following?
A. Type 2 diabetes
B. Pancreatitis
C. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
D. Liver failure Correct answer-C. Presence of toxins such as ethanol and ethylene glycol
The peripheral blood and bone marrow picture sometimes will look similar in myelodysplastic
syndromes and some RBC disorders. Which of the following RBC disorders tend to have a peripheral
smear appearance similar to cases of myelodysplastic syndromes?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. a-thalassemia minor
C. Megaloblastic anemia
D. Warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia Correct answer-C. Megaloblastic anemia
The single most appropriate screening test to detect thyroid disease is:
A. THBR
B. sTSH
C. Free thyrozine index
D. TT4
E. FT4 Correct answer-B. sTSH
Which of the following statements best describes a nephelometric assay?
A. It measures the decrease in light intensity in a solutionof antigen-antibody complexes
B. The concentration of antigen is directly proportional to the intensity of stain
C. The concentration of antigen is directly proportional to the amount of light scattered
D. It measures the increase in light intensity in a solution of antigen-antibody complexes Correct
answer-C. The concentration of antigen is directly proportional to the amount of light scattered
Which of the following enzymes is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin?
A. Biliverdin reductase
B. Peroxidase
C. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
D. B-glucuronidase Correct answer-C. UDP-glucuronyl transferase
