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ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2025/2026
Proctored Exam – Actual Exam
Questions and Verified Answers |
Guaranteed Pass with Rationales
Question 1
Antepartum: A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is
the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage the client to drink sugary juice.
B. Perform a nonstress test (NST).
C. Instruct the client to rest in a supine position.
D. Monitor the client’s blood glucose level.
Correct Answer: B. Perform a nonstress test (NST).
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress, requiring an NST to assess
fetal heart rate and movement. Sugary juice (A) is not a priority, supine position (C) risks vena
cava compression, and blood glucose (D) is unrelated unless diabetes is ind icated.
Question 2
Labor and Delivery: A client in active labor has a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 100 bpm with absent
variability. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask.
B. Reposition the client to the left lateral position.
C. Increase the IV fluid rate.
D. Prepare for an immediate cesarean section.
Correct Answer: B. Reposition the client to the left lateral position.
Rationale: An FHR of 100 bpm with absent variability indicates fetal distress, possibly due to
cord compression or uteroplacental insufficiency. Repositioning to the left lateral position
improves placental perfusion and is the first intervention. Oxygen (A), fluid s (C), or cesarean (D)
may follow based on response.
Question 3
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Postpartum: A client 24 hours postpartum reports heavy vaginal bleeding and a boggy uterus.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
B. Massage the fundus until firm.
C. Encourage ambulation to promote clotting.
D. Insert a urinary catheter.
Correct Answer: B. Massage the fundus until firm.
Rationale: A boggy uterus and heavy bleeding suggest uterine atony, a common cause of
postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contraction to control bleeding.
Oxytocin (A) is secondary, ambulation (C) is inappropriate, and catheterization (D) addresses
bladder distension, not the immediate issue.
Question 4
Newborn Care: A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min
B. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
C. Nasal flaring and grunting
D. Heart rate of 130 bpm
Correct Answer: C. Nasal flaring and grunting.
Rationale: Nasal flaring and grunting indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, requiring
immediate intervention. Respiratory rate of 40 (A) and heart rate of 130 (D) are normal, and
acrocyanosis (B) is a common finding in newborns.
Question 5
Antepartum: A client at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which
dietary recommendation should the nurse provide?
A. Increase simple carbohydrate intake.
B. Consume small, frequent meals with complex carbohydrates.
C. Avoid all fruits to reduce sugar intake.
D. Limit protein to prevent weight gain.
Correct Answer: B. Consume small, frequent meals with complex carbohydrates.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals with complex carbohydrates help stabilize blood glucose levels
in gestational diabetes. Simple carbohydrates (A) cause glucose spikes, fruits (C) are beneficial
in moderation, and protein (D) supports fetal growth.
, 3
Question 6
Labor and Delivery: A client is in the second stage of labor with strong contractions every 2
minutes. The nurse notes a late deceleration on the fetal monitor. What is the priority action?
A. Continue monitoring the FHR.
B. Administer oxygen at 8–10 L/min via face mask.
C. Prepare for a vaginal delivery.
D. Increase oxytocin infusion rate.
Correct Answer: B. Administer oxygen at 8–10 L/min via face mask.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, requiring oxygen to improve
fetal oxygenation. Continuing monitoring (A) delays intervention, vaginal delivery (C) is
premature, and increasing oxytocin (D) may worsen fetal distress.
Question 7
Postpartum: A client 3 days postpartum reports painful, engorged breasts. What should the
nurse recommend?
A. Apply warm compresses and express milk.
B. Stop breastfeeding to reduce engorgement.
C. Apply cold compresses between feedings.
D. Restrict fluid intake to decrease milk production.
Correct Answer: A. Apply warm compresses and express milk.
Rationale: Warm compresses and milk expression relieve engorgement by promoting milk flow.
Stopping breastfeeding (B) worsens engorgement, cold compresses (C) are used after feeding,
and fluid restriction (D) does not affect milk production.
Question 8
Newborn Care: A nurse is preparing to administer vitamin K to a newborn. What is the purpose
of this medication?
A. Prevent respiratory distress syndrome
B. Promote blood clotting
C. Enhance immune function
D. Support bone development
Correct Answer: B. Promote blood clotting.
Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to low
levels of clotting factors. It does not address respiratory distress (A), immunity (C), or bone
development (D).
ATI RN Maternal Newborn 2025/2026
Proctored Exam – Actual Exam
Questions and Verified Answers |
Guaranteed Pass with Rationales
Question 1
Antepartum: A pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation reports decreased fetal movement. What is
the nurse’s priority action?
A. Encourage the client to drink sugary juice.
B. Perform a nonstress test (NST).
C. Instruct the client to rest in a supine position.
D. Monitor the client’s blood glucose level.
Correct Answer: B. Perform a nonstress test (NST).
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement may indicate fetal distress, requiring an NST to assess
fetal heart rate and movement. Sugary juice (A) is not a priority, supine position (C) risks vena
cava compression, and blood glucose (D) is unrelated unless diabetes is ind icated.
Question 2
Labor and Delivery: A client in active labor has a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 100 bpm with absent
variability. What is the nurse’s first action?
A. Administer oxygen at 10 L/min via face mask.
B. Reposition the client to the left lateral position.
C. Increase the IV fluid rate.
D. Prepare for an immediate cesarean section.
Correct Answer: B. Reposition the client to the left lateral position.
Rationale: An FHR of 100 bpm with absent variability indicates fetal distress, possibly due to
cord compression or uteroplacental insufficiency. Repositioning to the left lateral position
improves placental perfusion and is the first intervention. Oxygen (A), fluid s (C), or cesarean (D)
may follow based on response.
Question 3
, 2
Postpartum: A client 24 hours postpartum reports heavy vaginal bleeding and a boggy uterus.
What is the nurse’s priority action?
A. Administer oxytocin as prescribed.
B. Massage the fundus until firm.
C. Encourage ambulation to promote clotting.
D. Insert a urinary catheter.
Correct Answer: B. Massage the fundus until firm.
Rationale: A boggy uterus and heavy bleeding suggest uterine atony, a common cause of
postpartum hemorrhage. Fundal massage promotes uterine contraction to control bleeding.
Oxytocin (A) is secondary, ambulation (C) is inappropriate, and catheterization (D) addresses
bladder distension, not the immediate issue.
Question 4
Newborn Care: A nurse is assessing a newborn 1 hour after birth. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A. Respiratory rate of 40 breaths/min
B. Acrocyanosis of hands and feet
C. Nasal flaring and grunting
D. Heart rate of 130 bpm
Correct Answer: C. Nasal flaring and grunting.
Rationale: Nasal flaring and grunting indicate respiratory distress in a newborn, requiring
immediate intervention. Respiratory rate of 40 (A) and heart rate of 130 (D) are normal, and
acrocyanosis (B) is a common finding in newborns.
Question 5
Antepartum: A client at 28 weeks gestation is diagnosed with gestational diabetes. Which
dietary recommendation should the nurse provide?
A. Increase simple carbohydrate intake.
B. Consume small, frequent meals with complex carbohydrates.
C. Avoid all fruits to reduce sugar intake.
D. Limit protein to prevent weight gain.
Correct Answer: B. Consume small, frequent meals with complex carbohydrates.
Rationale: Small, frequent meals with complex carbohydrates help stabilize blood glucose levels
in gestational diabetes. Simple carbohydrates (A) cause glucose spikes, fruits (C) are beneficial
in moderation, and protein (D) supports fetal growth.
, 3
Question 6
Labor and Delivery: A client is in the second stage of labor with strong contractions every 2
minutes. The nurse notes a late deceleration on the fetal monitor. What is the priority action?
A. Continue monitoring the FHR.
B. Administer oxygen at 8–10 L/min via face mask.
C. Prepare for a vaginal delivery.
D. Increase oxytocin infusion rate.
Correct Answer: B. Administer oxygen at 8–10 L/min via face mask.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency, requiring oxygen to improve
fetal oxygenation. Continuing monitoring (A) delays intervention, vaginal delivery (C) is
premature, and increasing oxytocin (D) may worsen fetal distress.
Question 7
Postpartum: A client 3 days postpartum reports painful, engorged breasts. What should the
nurse recommend?
A. Apply warm compresses and express milk.
B. Stop breastfeeding to reduce engorgement.
C. Apply cold compresses between feedings.
D. Restrict fluid intake to decrease milk production.
Correct Answer: A. Apply warm compresses and express milk.
Rationale: Warm compresses and milk expression relieve engorgement by promoting milk flow.
Stopping breastfeeding (B) worsens engorgement, cold compresses (C) are used after feeding,
and fluid restriction (D) does not affect milk production.
Question 8
Newborn Care: A nurse is preparing to administer vitamin K to a newborn. What is the purpose
of this medication?
A. Prevent respiratory distress syndrome
B. Promote blood clotting
C. Enhance immune function
D. Support bone development
Correct Answer: B. Promote blood clotting.
Rationale: Vitamin K is administered to newborns to prevent hemorrhagic disease due to low
levels of clotting factors. It does not address respiratory distress (A), immunity (C), or bone
development (D).
