Fitzgerald Nurse Practitioner
Exam 2025
200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+
Answers with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP
Board Prep Guide
, Fitzgerald Nurse Practitioner Exam 2025 – 200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+ Answers
with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP Board Prep Guide
UNIT 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
1. A 65-year-old man presents with chest tightness on exertion that resolves with rest. He has a
history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension. His ECG is normal, and his troponins are not
elevated. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A. Reassure and discharge with no further testing
B. Start beta-blocker and monitor symptoms
C. Order an exercise stress test
D. Refer for emergent cardiac catheterization
Correct Answer: C. Order an exercise stress test
Rationale:
This presentation is classic for stable angina—predictable exertional chest pain relieved by rest.
The absence of ECG changes and normal troponins rules out acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
An exercise stress test is the next step to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease.
A is incorrect—no testing is unsafe in a patient with angina.
B may be part of long-term management, but diagnostic confirmation is needed first.
D is appropriate only for unstable angina or positive stress test findings.
2. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is first-line for a Black adult patient with
hypertension and no other comorbidities?
A. Lisinopril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Losartan
D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale:
According to JNC-8 guidelines, thiazide diuretics and calcium channel blockers are
recommended first-line for Black adults without chronic kidney disease.
A (ACE inhibitors) and C (ARBs) are less effective as monotherapy in Black patients unless
there's CKD or diabetes with albuminuria.
D (beta-blockers) are not first-line unless there’s a compelling cardiac indication.
3. A 70-year-old woman presents with acute shortness of breath, elevated JVP, bilateral rales,
and S3 gallop. What is the most likely cause?
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Acute pulmonary embolism
C. Left-sided systolic heart failure
D. Pneumonia
Correct Answer: C. Left-sided systolic heart failure
Rationale:
The S3 gallop, pulmonary congestion (rales), and elevated JVP point to volume overload from
systolic heart failure.
A typically presents with peripheral edema and hepatomegaly, not pulmonary rales.
B may cause sudden dyspnea, but not an S3 or elevated JVP.
D lacks the cardiac exam findings.
2
, Fitzgerald Nurse Practitioner Exam 2025 – 200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+ Answers
with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP Board Prep Guide
4. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. Which treatment is most
appropriate?
A. Aspirin
B. Clopidogrel
C. No therapy needed
D. Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Correct Answer: D. Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Rationale:
A score of ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women warrants anticoagulation for stroke prevention. DOACs
(e.g., apixaban, rivaroxaban) are now preferred over warfarin in most patients.
A & B are insufficient for stroke prevention in high-risk patients.
C is incorrect given the elevated risk score.
5. Which murmur is best described as a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard
loudest at the right upper sternal border and radiating to the carotids?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Tricuspid regurgitation
Correct Answer: A. Aortic stenosis
Rationale:
Classic aortic stenosis murmur: harsh, crescendo-decrescendo, systolic, at the right 2nd
intercostal space, with radiation to the carotids.
B is holosystolic at apex radiating to axilla.
C is diastolic and blowing.
D is holosystolic at lower left sternal border.
6. A patient with known systolic heart failure presents with 10 lb weight gain, orthopnea, and
worsening leg edema. What is the initial outpatient intervention?
A. Increase ACE inhibitor dose
B. Administer IV furosemide
C. Add spironolactone
D. Increase oral loop diuretic
Correct Answer: D. Increase oral loop diuretic
Rationale:
This patient is experiencing volume overload—first-line outpatient management is to increase
the loop diuretic dose (e.g., furosemide).
A and C manage remodeling long-term but won’t relieve acute volume.
B requires hospitalization.
7. Which of the following lipid panel results requires statin therapy in a 52-year-old male with
no cardiovascular symptoms but an LDL of 195 mg/dL?
A. Lifestyle counseling only
B. High-intensity statin
3
, Fitzgerald Nurse Practitioner Exam 2025 – 200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+ Answers
with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP Board Prep Guide
C. Repeat lipid panel in 6 months
D. Add fish oil
Correct Answer: B. High-intensity statin
Rationale:
LDL ≥190 mg/dL is a Class I indication for high-intensity statin therapy, regardless of age or
other risk factors, per ACC/AHA guidelines.
A, C, D delay appropriate treatment.
8. A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation is stable. What is the most important initial step?
A. Immediate synchronized cardioversion
B. Rate control with beta-blocker
C. Start anticoagulation
D. Order echocardiogram
Correct Answer: B. Rate control with beta-blocker
Rationale:
In stable AFib, rate control (BB or CCB) is first priority. Anticoagulation and echo follow once
stability is ensured.
A is for unstable patients or if onset <48 hours with no clot risk.
C and D are necessary but not urgent first steps.
9. What finding on an EKG is most consistent with pericarditis?
A. PR segment depression and diffuse ST elevation
B. ST elevation in V1–V4 only
C. Pathologic Q waves
D. QT prolongation
Correct Answer: A. PR segment depression and diffuse ST elevation
Rationale:
Pericarditis shows diffuse ST elevations (concave upward) and PR depression.
B suggests anterior MI.
C suggests prior infarct.
D is seen in electrolyte imbalance or medication toxicity.
10. A patient with heart failure is started on spironolactone. What lab value must be monitored
most closely?
A. Sodium
B. BUN
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
Correct Answer: C. Potassium
Rationale:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic—can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in those
with renal impairment.
BUN is monitored, but K+ is most critical.
4
Exam 2025
200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+
Answers with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP
Board Prep Guide
, Fitzgerald Nurse Practitioner Exam 2025 – 200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+ Answers
with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP Board Prep Guide
UNIT 1: CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS
1. A 65-year-old man presents with chest tightness on exertion that resolves with rest. He has a
history of hyperlipidemia and hypertension. His ECG is normal, and his troponins are not
elevated. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
A. Reassure and discharge with no further testing
B. Start beta-blocker and monitor symptoms
C. Order an exercise stress test
D. Refer for emergent cardiac catheterization
Correct Answer: C. Order an exercise stress test
Rationale:
This presentation is classic for stable angina—predictable exertional chest pain relieved by rest.
The absence of ECG changes and normal troponins rules out acute coronary syndrome (ACS).
An exercise stress test is the next step to evaluate for underlying coronary artery disease.
A is incorrect—no testing is unsafe in a patient with angina.
B may be part of long-term management, but diagnostic confirmation is needed first.
D is appropriate only for unstable angina or positive stress test findings.
2. Which of the following antihypertensive agents is first-line for a Black adult patient with
hypertension and no other comorbidities?
A. Lisinopril
B. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Losartan
D. Metoprolol
Correct Answer: B. Hydrochlorothiazide
Rationale:
According to JNC-8 guidelines, thiazide diuretics and calcium channel blockers are
recommended first-line for Black adults without chronic kidney disease.
A (ACE inhibitors) and C (ARBs) are less effective as monotherapy in Black patients unless
there's CKD or diabetes with albuminuria.
D (beta-blockers) are not first-line unless there’s a compelling cardiac indication.
3. A 70-year-old woman presents with acute shortness of breath, elevated JVP, bilateral rales,
and S3 gallop. What is the most likely cause?
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Acute pulmonary embolism
C. Left-sided systolic heart failure
D. Pneumonia
Correct Answer: C. Left-sided systolic heart failure
Rationale:
The S3 gallop, pulmonary congestion (rales), and elevated JVP point to volume overload from
systolic heart failure.
A typically presents with peripheral edema and hepatomegaly, not pulmonary rales.
B may cause sudden dyspnea, but not an S3 or elevated JVP.
D lacks the cardiac exam findings.
2
, Fitzgerald Nurse Practitioner Exam 2025 – 200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+ Answers
with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP Board Prep Guide
4. A patient with atrial fibrillation has a CHA₂DS₂-VASc score of 3. Which treatment is most
appropriate?
A. Aspirin
B. Clopidogrel
C. No therapy needed
D. Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Correct Answer: D. Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)
Rationale:
A score of ≥2 in men or ≥3 in women warrants anticoagulation for stroke prevention. DOACs
(e.g., apixaban, rivaroxaban) are now preferred over warfarin in most patients.
A & B are insufficient for stroke prevention in high-risk patients.
C is incorrect given the elevated risk score.
5. Which murmur is best described as a mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard
loudest at the right upper sternal border and radiating to the carotids?
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Aortic regurgitation
D. Tricuspid regurgitation
Correct Answer: A. Aortic stenosis
Rationale:
Classic aortic stenosis murmur: harsh, crescendo-decrescendo, systolic, at the right 2nd
intercostal space, with radiation to the carotids.
B is holosystolic at apex radiating to axilla.
C is diastolic and blowing.
D is holosystolic at lower left sternal border.
6. A patient with known systolic heart failure presents with 10 lb weight gain, orthopnea, and
worsening leg edema. What is the initial outpatient intervention?
A. Increase ACE inhibitor dose
B. Administer IV furosemide
C. Add spironolactone
D. Increase oral loop diuretic
Correct Answer: D. Increase oral loop diuretic
Rationale:
This patient is experiencing volume overload—first-line outpatient management is to increase
the loop diuretic dose (e.g., furosemide).
A and C manage remodeling long-term but won’t relieve acute volume.
B requires hospitalization.
7. Which of the following lipid panel results requires statin therapy in a 52-year-old male with
no cardiovascular symptoms but an LDL of 195 mg/dL?
A. Lifestyle counseling only
B. High-intensity statin
3
, Fitzgerald Nurse Practitioner Exam 2025 – 200-Question Post-Test Study Set | Verified A+ Answers
with Full Rationales | FNP/AGNP Board Prep Guide
C. Repeat lipid panel in 6 months
D. Add fish oil
Correct Answer: B. High-intensity statin
Rationale:
LDL ≥190 mg/dL is a Class I indication for high-intensity statin therapy, regardless of age or
other risk factors, per ACC/AHA guidelines.
A, C, D delay appropriate treatment.
8. A patient with new-onset atrial fibrillation is stable. What is the most important initial step?
A. Immediate synchronized cardioversion
B. Rate control with beta-blocker
C. Start anticoagulation
D. Order echocardiogram
Correct Answer: B. Rate control with beta-blocker
Rationale:
In stable AFib, rate control (BB or CCB) is first priority. Anticoagulation and echo follow once
stability is ensured.
A is for unstable patients or if onset <48 hours with no clot risk.
C and D are necessary but not urgent first steps.
9. What finding on an EKG is most consistent with pericarditis?
A. PR segment depression and diffuse ST elevation
B. ST elevation in V1–V4 only
C. Pathologic Q waves
D. QT prolongation
Correct Answer: A. PR segment depression and diffuse ST elevation
Rationale:
Pericarditis shows diffuse ST elevations (concave upward) and PR depression.
B suggests anterior MI.
C suggests prior infarct.
D is seen in electrolyte imbalance or medication toxicity.
10. A patient with heart failure is started on spironolactone. What lab value must be monitored
most closely?
A. Sodium
B. BUN
C. Potassium
D. Chloride
Correct Answer: C. Potassium
Rationale:
Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic—can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in those
with renal impairment.
BUN is monitored, but K+ is most critical.
4
