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NR602 Final Exam LATEST (4 DIFFERENT VERSIONS)/NR 602 FINAL EXAM – GUARANTEED PASS

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Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum? a. Verruciform d. Bullous -ANSWER-- a genitalia w/small amount of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few hae. No WBCs. Which one would be the most appropriate treatment? d. Erythromycin 500mg TID x10 days -ANSWER-- c except for recent abx for strep throat. Pelvic reveals tender vulvovaginal area w/edema and nonmalodorous white patches. Which is the most a. Bacterial vaginosis b. Trichomonas c. Lactobacillus overgrowth d. Candidiasis -ANSWER-- d a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels b. Androgen deficiency c. Galactorrhea d. Hirsutism -ANSWER-- c 24yo female is dx'd w/primary dysmenorrhea. Which med would be used as first-line to help control symptoms? a. Antianxiety meds c. Oral steroids d. NSAIDs -ANSWER-- d Primary amenorrhea is best described as: a. Cessation of menstruation x6mo b. Failure of menstruation to occur by 17ho c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13yo d. Cessation of menstruation x6mo after menarche -ANSWER-- c 25yo female c/o vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, cervix is easily friable and erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals mobile protozoa on NS slide. This most likely represents: a. Trichomonas b. Mucopurulent cervicitis c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Gonorrhea -ANSWER-- a 16yo female has h/o secondary amenorrhea. Menarche at 10yo, regular cycles x2yrs, has not menstruated x4yrs. What is most frequent etiology of this problem? a. Eating disorder b. Pregnancy c. Anovulatory cycles d. Stress -ANSWER-- a Woman is experiencing vaginal discharge. Wet mount with KOH would be used to confirm: d. Chlamydia -ANSWER-- c Treatment options for condyloma acuminatum include: d. Metronidazole -ANSWER-- a

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